Question Booklet Code: C Duration: 2 Hours
Course: Diploma in Engineering Year: First Year
Paper Code: 702103 Paper Name: Environmental Studies
ATTEMPT ALL THE BELOW MENTIONED QUESTIONS:
1. The Head Quarters of International
Whaling Commission
A. Newyork
B. Kyoto
C. Perth
D. Cambridge
2. Increased defoliation in plants is
caused by
A. Ozone Depletion
B. Acid Rains
C. Global Warming
D. Ground Pollution
3. The Himalayan Ibex is a type of
A. Goat
B. Deer
C. Ass
D. Cattle
4. For providing environmental
information to decision makers, policy
planners, scientists and engineers,
research workers, etc. All over the
country., envis was established in the
year
A. 1979
B. 1980
C. 1981
D. 1982
5. Which of the following is not a mission
listed under National Action Plan On
Cilmate Change(NAPCC.
A. National Mission On Sustainable
Development
B. National Mission On Enhanced Energy
Efficiency
C. National Mission On Sustainable Himalayan
Ecosystem
D. National Mission On Strategic Knowledge
For Climate Change
6. The only conference of parties held in
india
A. cop-12
B. cop-13
C. cop-14
D. cop-15
7. Who wrote the book
“hotspots:revisited”
A. Walter Rosen
B. Norman Myers
C. Russel Mittermeier
D. Rachel Carson
8. The State Bird of Uttarakhand
A. Monal
B. Indian Bustard
C. Indian Roller
D. Sarus Crane
9. The year declared by un as
international year of forests
A. 2011
B. 2010
C. 2009
D. 2008
10. National biodiversity authority is
located a
A. Thiruvananthapuram
B. Chennai
C. Imphal
D. Shimla
11. The greenhouse gas with high heat
trapping capability
A. Carbondioxide
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Sulphur Hexa Flouride
D. Methane
12. Consider the following statements
1. Ocean acidification due to global warming
activates coral growth
2. Global warming may result in increased
agricultural yield in certain parts of the earth
The correct statements
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 And 2
D. Neither 1 Nor 2
CMJ UNIVERSITY, SHILLONG
TERM END EXAMINATION - 2013
2 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
13. The primordial earth’s atmosphere
was
A. Reducing
B. With Free Oxygen
C. Cooler
D. All Of These
14. The number of biosphere reserves in
India recognized as a part of world
network of biospheres
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
15. Growing rice results in the release of
________ into the atmosphere
A. Methane
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Ozone
D. Hydroflurocarbons
16. What is the difference between a
threatened species and an endangered
species?
(a. A threatened species means that the
population is likely to become endangeredan
endangered species has population numbers
so low that it is likely to become extinct
(b. A threatened species is already extinct. An
endangered species means that the
population’s numbers have increased greatly
over the last 5 years
(c. A threatened species means that the
population is likely to become endangered. An
endangered species is already extinct
(d. A threatened species and an endangered
species are the same
17. Edge species
(a. Decrease biodiversity
(b. Only exist in areas that have been altered
by humans
(c. Require the unique homogenous edge
environment
(d. May require conditions found in both of the
bordering ecosystems
18. Which of the following is a native
species of India
A. Two Horned Rhinoceros
B. Rhesus Monkey
C. Komodo Dragon
D. None
19. Which book written by Rachel Carson
resulted in banning DDT in USA
A. Silent Spring
B. The Environmentalism
C. Biomagnification
D. Food Chain
20. Which of the following competition is
severe
A. Intra Specific
B. Inter Specific
C. Extra Specific
D. None
21. The water (prevention and control .
pollution act came into force in the year
A. 1972
B. 1974
C. 1977
D. 1981
22. The conference on 'The Human
Environment" held from 5 to 16 June
1972 was held in ...
A. Stockholm, Sweden
B. Tbilisi, Soviet Union
C. Rio De Janeiro, Brazil
D. Kyoto, Japan
23. Man and biosphere programme is
affiliated with...
A. UNESCO
B. IUCN
C. WWF
D. WIPO
24. What does "system" imply in the term
"ecosystem"?
A. Environment
B. Interdependent Complex
C. System Approach
D. Ecological Systems
25. The term "ecology" was defined for
the first time in 1970 by...
A. Haeckel
B. St. Hilaire
C. Jackson mivart
D. H. Reiter
26. The "Vienna Convention" related with
environment is basically related with..
A. International trade in endangered species
B. Protection of ozone layer
C. Biodiversity conservation
D. Preservation of cultural environment
27. Which of the following gases has an
important role in maintaining atmosphere
temperature?
A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Argon
D. Carbon dioxide
28. The world’s biggest ghg emitter
A. China
B. USA
C. India
D. South Africa
3 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
29. The outermost zone of a biosphere
reserve is
A. Manipulation zone
B. Core zone
C. Buffer zone
D. Any of these
30. Identify the correct match of a tiger
reserve and the state in which it is
located
A. Corbett—Madhya Pradesh
B. Darra—Rajasthan
C. Perambakulam—Karnataka
D. Bandipur—Tamil Nadu
31. The total number of extant species is
approximately
A. 1,000 to 50,000
B. 50,000 to 150,000
C. 500,000 to 1,000,000
D. 10,000,000 to 80,000,000
32. Which of the following most directly
relates to the current biodiversity crisis?
A. Increased atmospheric carbon dioxide
B. Ozone depletion
C. The rate of extinction
D. Introduced species
33. Which of the following terms includes
all of the others?
A. Genetic diversity
B. Species diversity
C. Biodiversity
D. Ecosystem diversity
34. In order to better understand the
extent of current extinctions it will be
necessary to do which of the following?
A. Focus intensely on identifying more species
of mammals and birds
B. Monitor atmospheric carbon dioxide levels
C. Differentiate between plant extinction and
animal extinction
D. Identify more of the yet unknown species
of organisms on our planet
35. Estimates of current rates of
extinction
A. Indicate that we have reached a state of
unstable equilibrium in which speciation and
extinction rates are approximately equal
B. Suggest that one-half of all animal and
plant species may be gone by the year 2100
C. Indicate that rates may be 1,000 times
higher than at any other time in the last
100,000 years
D. B and C only are true
36. The most accurate assessments of
current extinction rates probably come
from studies of
A. Reptiles, because they are ectothermic and
susceptible to population declines during
frequent past glacial periods
B. Birds and mammals, because they are
relatively well-known taxa
C. Marine invertebrates, because of their
relatively long and complete fossil history
D. Insects, because they comprise the vast
majority of extant multicellular organisms
37. Which of the following would not
qualify as an ecosystem service?
A. Rain falling to Earth
B. Squirrels burying acorns
C. Leaves falling on a forest floor
D. Blowfly larvae infesting a deer carcass
38. Which of the following is a valid
conclusion about the outcome of
Biosphere II?
A. Natural ecosystems are complex and not
easily duplicated
B. Humans cannot live in small spaces for an
extended period of time
C. Closed ecosystems must be made airtight
D. Small populations are more likely to go
extinct
39. According to most conservation
biologists, the single greatest threat to
global biodiversity is
A. Insufficient recycling programs for
nonrenewable resources
B. Global climate change resulting from a
variety of human activities
C. Stratospheric ozone depletion
D. Alteration or destruction of the physical
habitat
40. The Nile perch (Lates niloticus. is a
good example of a(n.
A. Endangered endemic
B. Threatened migratory species
C. Primary consumer
D. Introduced predator
41. Which of the following was not
presented as an example of an introduced
species?
A. Red foxes in Australia
B. Timber wolves in Minnesota
C. Starlings in New York
D. Zebra mussels in the Great Lakes
42. Introduced species can have
important effects on biological
communities by
A. Preying upon native species
B. Displacing native species
C. Reducing biodiversity
D. Doing all of the above
4 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
43. Which of the following does not
represent a potential threat to
biodiversity?
A. Importing a European insect into the United
States to control an undesirable weed
B. Letting previously used farmland go fallow
and begin to fill with weeds and shrubs
C. Building a new mall on a previously
unoccupied piece of midwestern prairie
D. Harvesting all of the oysters from an oyster
bed off the Atlantic coast
44. All of the following apply to the
concept of the extinction vortex except:
A. Populations of the species entering it are
small
B. It is a concept developed by conservation
biologists who adopt the “small population
approach”
C. The genetic variation of the species’
population decreases
D. The key factor driving the extinction vortex
is intraspecific competition
45. Which of the following is a method of
predicting the likelihood that a species
will persist in a particular environment?
A. Source-sink analysis
B. Minimum viable population size
C. Population dynamic analysis
D. Population viability analysis
46. A cow’s herbivorous diet indicates
that it is a(n.
A. Secondary consumer
B. Decomposer
C. Primary consumer
D. Autotroph
47. Which of the following organisms fix
nitrogen in aquatic ecosystems?
A. Fungi
B. Chemoautotrophs
C. Cyanobacteria
D. Legumes
48. Which of the following statements are
true?
A. An ecosystem’s trophic structure
determines the rate at which energy cycles
within the system
B. Chemoautotrophic prokaryotes near deepsea
vents are primary producers
C. There has been a well-documented increase
in atmospheric carbon dioxide over the past
several decades
D. Both B and C are true
49. Production, consumption, and
decomposition are important ecosystem
processes. Organisms in which of the
following taxa perform decomposition?
A. Invertebrates
B. Bacteria
C. Vertebrates
D. A, B, and C
50. Organisms in which of the following
taxa are responsible for most of the
conversion of organic materials into
inorganic compounds that can be utilized
in primary production?
a. Autotrophs
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. B and C
51. The main decomposers in an
ecosystem are
a. Fungi
b. Plants
c. Insects
d. A and B
52. The fundamental difference between
materials and energy is that
A. Energy is cycled through ecosystems;
materials are not
B. Materials can be converted into energy;
energy cannot be converted into materials
C. Energy can be converted into materials;
materials cannot be converted into energy
D. Materials are cycled through ecosystems;
energy is not
53. The concept that energy cannot cycle
through an ecosystem is best explained
by
A. The law of conservation of energy
B. The principle of biomagnifications
C. The second law of thermodynamics
D. The competitive exclusion principle
54. Subtraction of which of the following
will convert gross primary productivity
into net primary productivity?
A. The energy fixed by photosynthesis
B. All solar energy
C. The energy contained in the standing crop
D. The energy used by autotrophs in
respiration
55. The difference between net and gross
primary productivity would likely be
greatest for
A. Prairie grasses
B. Sphagnum moss in a bog
C. Phytoplankton in the ocean
D. An oak tree in a forest
56. Which of these ecosystems accounts
for the largest amount of Earth’s primary
productivity?
A. Open ocean
B. Savanna
C. Tundra
D. Salt marsh
5 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
57. The producers in ecosystems include
which of the following?
I. prokaryotes
II. Algae
III. Plants
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II, and III
58. Which of these ecosystems has the
highest primary productivity per square
meter?
A. Open ocean
B. Tropical rain forest
C. Boreal forest
D. Temperate forest
59. The total biomass of photosynthetic
autotrophs present in an ecosystem is
known as the
A. Net primary productivity
B. Standing crop
C. Tropic efficiency
D. Gross primary productivity
60. Aquatic primary productivity is often
limited by which of the following?
I. light
II. Nutrients
III. Pressure
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
61. _______ is not a fossil fuel.
A. Coal
B. Natural gas
C. Petroleum
D. Wind energy
62. The coal reservoirs are estimated to
last for another _______ years.
A. 50
B. 100
C. 250
D. 500
63. ________ reaction is continuously
going on in sun.
A. Thermonuclear fusion
B. Thermonuclear fission
C. Thermostatic fusion
D. Thermostatic fission
64. How much energy does sun release in
the form of radiation ?
A. 3.8 x 1024 joule/second
B. 3.8 x 1026 joule/second
C. 1.7 x 1017 joule/second
D. 1.7 x 1026 joule/second
65. How much energy from sun reaches
to earth's surface?
A. 3.8 x 1024 joule/second
B. 3.8 x 1026 joule/second
C. 1.7 x 1017 joule/second
D. 1.7 x 1026 joule/second
66. The average distance between the
sun and the earth is _______.
A. 1.5 x 105 km
B. 1.5 x 106 km
C. 1.5 x 107 km
D. 1.5 x 108 km
67. The value of solar constant is
________.
A. 1.335 kW/m2
B. 1.533 kW/m2
C. 1.358 kW/m2
D. 1.353 kW/m2
68. Approximately ______ of energy
striking the outer atmosphere of earth
reaches its surface.
A. 46 %
B. 47 %
C. 48 %
D. 49%
69. Of the visible light ______ has the
maximum wavelength and ______ has
the minimum wavelength.
A. red, green
B. red, yellow
C. red, violet
D. violet, red
70. The wavelength of visible light is
________.
A. 4 x 10-7 to 8 x 10-7 m
B. 4 x 10-6 to 8 x 10-6 m
C. 4 x 107 to 8 x 107 m
D. 4 x 106 to 8 x 106 m
A. time slot.
Course: Diploma in Engineering Year: First Year
Paper Code: 702103 Paper Name: Environmental Studies
ATTEMPT ALL THE BELOW MENTIONED QUESTIONS:
1. The Head Quarters of International
Whaling Commission
A. Newyork
B. Kyoto
C. Perth
D. Cambridge
2. Increased defoliation in plants is
caused by
A. Ozone Depletion
B. Acid Rains
C. Global Warming
D. Ground Pollution
3. The Himalayan Ibex is a type of
A. Goat
B. Deer
C. Ass
D. Cattle
4. For providing environmental
information to decision makers, policy
planners, scientists and engineers,
research workers, etc. All over the
country., envis was established in the
year
A. 1979
B. 1980
C. 1981
D. 1982
5. Which of the following is not a mission
listed under National Action Plan On
Cilmate Change(NAPCC.
A. National Mission On Sustainable
Development
B. National Mission On Enhanced Energy
Efficiency
C. National Mission On Sustainable Himalayan
Ecosystem
D. National Mission On Strategic Knowledge
For Climate Change
6. The only conference of parties held in
india
A. cop-12
B. cop-13
C. cop-14
D. cop-15
7. Who wrote the book
“hotspots:revisited”
A. Walter Rosen
B. Norman Myers
C. Russel Mittermeier
D. Rachel Carson
8. The State Bird of Uttarakhand
A. Monal
B. Indian Bustard
C. Indian Roller
D. Sarus Crane
9. The year declared by un as
international year of forests
A. 2011
B. 2010
C. 2009
D. 2008
10. National biodiversity authority is
located a
A. Thiruvananthapuram
B. Chennai
C. Imphal
D. Shimla
11. The greenhouse gas with high heat
trapping capability
A. Carbondioxide
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Sulphur Hexa Flouride
D. Methane
12. Consider the following statements
1. Ocean acidification due to global warming
activates coral growth
2. Global warming may result in increased
agricultural yield in certain parts of the earth
The correct statements
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 And 2
D. Neither 1 Nor 2
CMJ UNIVERSITY, SHILLONG
TERM END EXAMINATION - 2013
2 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
13. The primordial earth’s atmosphere
was
A. Reducing
B. With Free Oxygen
C. Cooler
D. All Of These
14. The number of biosphere reserves in
India recognized as a part of world
network of biospheres
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
15. Growing rice results in the release of
________ into the atmosphere
A. Methane
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Ozone
D. Hydroflurocarbons
16. What is the difference between a
threatened species and an endangered
species?
(a. A threatened species means that the
population is likely to become endangeredan
endangered species has population numbers
so low that it is likely to become extinct
(b. A threatened species is already extinct. An
endangered species means that the
population’s numbers have increased greatly
over the last 5 years
(c. A threatened species means that the
population is likely to become endangered. An
endangered species is already extinct
(d. A threatened species and an endangered
species are the same
17. Edge species
(a. Decrease biodiversity
(b. Only exist in areas that have been altered
by humans
(c. Require the unique homogenous edge
environment
(d. May require conditions found in both of the
bordering ecosystems
18. Which of the following is a native
species of India
A. Two Horned Rhinoceros
B. Rhesus Monkey
C. Komodo Dragon
D. None
19. Which book written by Rachel Carson
resulted in banning DDT in USA
A. Silent Spring
B. The Environmentalism
C. Biomagnification
D. Food Chain
20. Which of the following competition is
severe
A. Intra Specific
B. Inter Specific
C. Extra Specific
D. None
21. The water (prevention and control .
pollution act came into force in the year
A. 1972
B. 1974
C. 1977
D. 1981
22. The conference on 'The Human
Environment" held from 5 to 16 June
1972 was held in ...
A. Stockholm, Sweden
B. Tbilisi, Soviet Union
C. Rio De Janeiro, Brazil
D. Kyoto, Japan
23. Man and biosphere programme is
affiliated with...
A. UNESCO
B. IUCN
C. WWF
D. WIPO
24. What does "system" imply in the term
"ecosystem"?
A. Environment
B. Interdependent Complex
C. System Approach
D. Ecological Systems
25. The term "ecology" was defined for
the first time in 1970 by...
A. Haeckel
B. St. Hilaire
C. Jackson mivart
D. H. Reiter
26. The "Vienna Convention" related with
environment is basically related with..
A. International trade in endangered species
B. Protection of ozone layer
C. Biodiversity conservation
D. Preservation of cultural environment
27. Which of the following gases has an
important role in maintaining atmosphere
temperature?
A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Argon
D. Carbon dioxide
28. The world’s biggest ghg emitter
A. China
B. USA
C. India
D. South Africa
3 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
29. The outermost zone of a biosphere
reserve is
A. Manipulation zone
B. Core zone
C. Buffer zone
D. Any of these
30. Identify the correct match of a tiger
reserve and the state in which it is
located
A. Corbett—Madhya Pradesh
B. Darra—Rajasthan
C. Perambakulam—Karnataka
D. Bandipur—Tamil Nadu
31. The total number of extant species is
approximately
A. 1,000 to 50,000
B. 50,000 to 150,000
C. 500,000 to 1,000,000
D. 10,000,000 to 80,000,000
32. Which of the following most directly
relates to the current biodiversity crisis?
A. Increased atmospheric carbon dioxide
B. Ozone depletion
C. The rate of extinction
D. Introduced species
33. Which of the following terms includes
all of the others?
A. Genetic diversity
B. Species diversity
C. Biodiversity
D. Ecosystem diversity
34. In order to better understand the
extent of current extinctions it will be
necessary to do which of the following?
A. Focus intensely on identifying more species
of mammals and birds
B. Monitor atmospheric carbon dioxide levels
C. Differentiate between plant extinction and
animal extinction
D. Identify more of the yet unknown species
of organisms on our planet
35. Estimates of current rates of
extinction
A. Indicate that we have reached a state of
unstable equilibrium in which speciation and
extinction rates are approximately equal
B. Suggest that one-half of all animal and
plant species may be gone by the year 2100
C. Indicate that rates may be 1,000 times
higher than at any other time in the last
100,000 years
D. B and C only are true
36. The most accurate assessments of
current extinction rates probably come
from studies of
A. Reptiles, because they are ectothermic and
susceptible to population declines during
frequent past glacial periods
B. Birds and mammals, because they are
relatively well-known taxa
C. Marine invertebrates, because of their
relatively long and complete fossil history
D. Insects, because they comprise the vast
majority of extant multicellular organisms
37. Which of the following would not
qualify as an ecosystem service?
A. Rain falling to Earth
B. Squirrels burying acorns
C. Leaves falling on a forest floor
D. Blowfly larvae infesting a deer carcass
38. Which of the following is a valid
conclusion about the outcome of
Biosphere II?
A. Natural ecosystems are complex and not
easily duplicated
B. Humans cannot live in small spaces for an
extended period of time
C. Closed ecosystems must be made airtight
D. Small populations are more likely to go
extinct
39. According to most conservation
biologists, the single greatest threat to
global biodiversity is
A. Insufficient recycling programs for
nonrenewable resources
B. Global climate change resulting from a
variety of human activities
C. Stratospheric ozone depletion
D. Alteration or destruction of the physical
habitat
40. The Nile perch (Lates niloticus. is a
good example of a(n.
A. Endangered endemic
B. Threatened migratory species
C. Primary consumer
D. Introduced predator
41. Which of the following was not
presented as an example of an introduced
species?
A. Red foxes in Australia
B. Timber wolves in Minnesota
C. Starlings in New York
D. Zebra mussels in the Great Lakes
42. Introduced species can have
important effects on biological
communities by
A. Preying upon native species
B. Displacing native species
C. Reducing biodiversity
D. Doing all of the above
4 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
43. Which of the following does not
represent a potential threat to
biodiversity?
A. Importing a European insect into the United
States to control an undesirable weed
B. Letting previously used farmland go fallow
and begin to fill with weeds and shrubs
C. Building a new mall on a previously
unoccupied piece of midwestern prairie
D. Harvesting all of the oysters from an oyster
bed off the Atlantic coast
44. All of the following apply to the
concept of the extinction vortex except:
A. Populations of the species entering it are
small
B. It is a concept developed by conservation
biologists who adopt the “small population
approach”
C. The genetic variation of the species’
population decreases
D. The key factor driving the extinction vortex
is intraspecific competition
45. Which of the following is a method of
predicting the likelihood that a species
will persist in a particular environment?
A. Source-sink analysis
B. Minimum viable population size
C. Population dynamic analysis
D. Population viability analysis
46. A cow’s herbivorous diet indicates
that it is a(n.
A. Secondary consumer
B. Decomposer
C. Primary consumer
D. Autotroph
47. Which of the following organisms fix
nitrogen in aquatic ecosystems?
A. Fungi
B. Chemoautotrophs
C. Cyanobacteria
D. Legumes
48. Which of the following statements are
true?
A. An ecosystem’s trophic structure
determines the rate at which energy cycles
within the system
B. Chemoautotrophic prokaryotes near deepsea
vents are primary producers
C. There has been a well-documented increase
in atmospheric carbon dioxide over the past
several decades
D. Both B and C are true
49. Production, consumption, and
decomposition are important ecosystem
processes. Organisms in which of the
following taxa perform decomposition?
A. Invertebrates
B. Bacteria
C. Vertebrates
D. A, B, and C
50. Organisms in which of the following
taxa are responsible for most of the
conversion of organic materials into
inorganic compounds that can be utilized
in primary production?
a. Autotrophs
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. B and C
51. The main decomposers in an
ecosystem are
a. Fungi
b. Plants
c. Insects
d. A and B
52. The fundamental difference between
materials and energy is that
A. Energy is cycled through ecosystems;
materials are not
B. Materials can be converted into energy;
energy cannot be converted into materials
C. Energy can be converted into materials;
materials cannot be converted into energy
D. Materials are cycled through ecosystems;
energy is not
53. The concept that energy cannot cycle
through an ecosystem is best explained
by
A. The law of conservation of energy
B. The principle of biomagnifications
C. The second law of thermodynamics
D. The competitive exclusion principle
54. Subtraction of which of the following
will convert gross primary productivity
into net primary productivity?
A. The energy fixed by photosynthesis
B. All solar energy
C. The energy contained in the standing crop
D. The energy used by autotrophs in
respiration
55. The difference between net and gross
primary productivity would likely be
greatest for
A. Prairie grasses
B. Sphagnum moss in a bog
C. Phytoplankton in the ocean
D. An oak tree in a forest
56. Which of these ecosystems accounts
for the largest amount of Earth’s primary
productivity?
A. Open ocean
B. Savanna
C. Tundra
D. Salt marsh
5 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
57. The producers in ecosystems include
which of the following?
I. prokaryotes
II. Algae
III. Plants
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II, and III
58. Which of these ecosystems has the
highest primary productivity per square
meter?
A. Open ocean
B. Tropical rain forest
C. Boreal forest
D. Temperate forest
59. The total biomass of photosynthetic
autotrophs present in an ecosystem is
known as the
A. Net primary productivity
B. Standing crop
C. Tropic efficiency
D. Gross primary productivity
60. Aquatic primary productivity is often
limited by which of the following?
I. light
II. Nutrients
III. Pressure
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
61. _______ is not a fossil fuel.
A. Coal
B. Natural gas
C. Petroleum
D. Wind energy
62. The coal reservoirs are estimated to
last for another _______ years.
A. 50
B. 100
C. 250
D. 500
63. ________ reaction is continuously
going on in sun.
A. Thermonuclear fusion
B. Thermonuclear fission
C. Thermostatic fusion
D. Thermostatic fission
64. How much energy does sun release in
the form of radiation ?
A. 3.8 x 1024 joule/second
B. 3.8 x 1026 joule/second
C. 1.7 x 1017 joule/second
D. 1.7 x 1026 joule/second
65. How much energy from sun reaches
to earth's surface?
A. 3.8 x 1024 joule/second
B. 3.8 x 1026 joule/second
C. 1.7 x 1017 joule/second
D. 1.7 x 1026 joule/second
66. The average distance between the
sun and the earth is _______.
A. 1.5 x 105 km
B. 1.5 x 106 km
C. 1.5 x 107 km
D. 1.5 x 108 km
67. The value of solar constant is
________.
A. 1.335 kW/m2
B. 1.533 kW/m2
C. 1.358 kW/m2
D. 1.353 kW/m2
68. Approximately ______ of energy
striking the outer atmosphere of earth
reaches its surface.
A. 46 %
B. 47 %
C. 48 %
D. 49%
69. Of the visible light ______ has the
maximum wavelength and ______ has
the minimum wavelength.
A. red, green
B. red, yellow
C. red, violet
D. violet, red
70. The wavelength of visible light is
________.
A. 4 x 10-7 to 8 x 10-7 m
B. 4 x 10-6 to 8 x 10-6 m
C. 4 x 107 to 8 x 107 m
D. 4 x 106 to 8 x 106 m
A. time slot.
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