CMJU Exam papers 2013: contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

1 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
ATTEMPT ALL THE BELOW MENTIONED QUESTIONS:
1 ) In a time-sharing operating
system, when the time slot given to a
process is completed, the process
goes from the RUNNING state to the
a. BLOCKED state
b. READY state
c. SUSPENDED state
d. TERMINATED state
2 ) Pre-emptive scheduling is the
strategy of temporarily suspending a
running process
a. before the CPU time slice expires
b. to allow starving processes to run
c. when it requests I/O
d. none of these
3 ) Mutual exclusion problem occurs
between
a. two disjoint processes that do not
interact
b. processes that share resources
c. processes that do not use the same
resource
d. none of these
4 ) Disk scheduling involves deciding
a. which disk should be accessed next
b. the order in which disk access requests
must be serviced
c. the physical location where files should
be accessed in the disk
d. none of these
5 ) The first-fit, best-fit and the
worst-fit algorithm can be used for
a. contiguous allocation of memory
b. linked allocation of memory
c. indexed allocation of memory
d. all of these
6 ) In Round Robin CPU scheduling,
as the time quantum is increased, the
average turnaround time
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. varies irregularly
7 ) Suppose that a process is in
'BLOCKED' state waiting for some I/0
service. When the service is
a. running state
b. ready state
c. suspend state
d. terminated state
8 ) Distributed systems should
a. meet prescribed time constraints
b. aim better resource sharing
c. aim better system utilization
d. aim low system overhead
9 ) In real-time operating systems,
which of the following is the most
suitable scheduling scheme?
a. round-robin
b. first-come-first-served
c. pre-emptive
d. random scheduling
CMJ UNIVERSITY, SHILLONG
Question Booklet Code: C Duration: 2 Hours
Course: Year: Third Year
Paper Code: Paper Name: Operating Systems 702333
Diploma in Engineering (Computer Science)
TERM END EXAMINAITON - 2013
2 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
10 ) In a paged segmented scheme of
memory management, the segment
table itself must have a page table
because
a. the segment is spread over a number
to hit in one page
b. each segment is spread over a number
of pages
c. segment tables point to page tables
and not to the physical
location of the segment
d. the processor's description base
register points to a page table
11 ) Relocatable programs
a. cannot be used with fixed partitions
b. can be loaded almost anywhere in
memory
c. do not need a linker
d. can be loaded onyx at one specific
location
12 ) Fixed partitions
a. are very common in current operating
systems
b. are very efficient in memory utilization
c. are very inefficient in memory
utilization
d. are most used on large mainframe
operating systems
13 ) A linker
a. is not necessary with variable partitions
b. must be run after the loader
c. creates a load module
d. is not needed with a good compiler
14 ) The garbage collector
a. is critical for efficient virtual memory
systems
b. prevents fragmentation from occurring
c. is mostly used with fixed partitions
d. collects fragmented areas of memory
15 ) An unpaged or read-ahead cache
associates disk domains with the
address of the read and continues for
a specific length. The major
disadvantage of unpaged cache is
that
a. it allows cache domain to contain
redundant data
b. it does not allow writes to be cached
c. its access time is greater than that of
paged caching
d. read ahead cache domain blocks are
necessarily fixed in size
16 ) File record length
a. should always be fixed
b. should always be variable
c. depends upon the size of the file
d. should be chosen to match the data
character
17 ) Wild-card specifiers
a. provide an easy way of finding groups
of realted files
b. are only used when printing the
contents of files
c. can be used when writing a file
d. allow several files to be read
simultaneously
18 ) The allocation map
a. is used to store program data
b. specifies which blocks are used by
which file
c. is updated by applications programs
d. allow programs to erase files
19 ) The volatility of a file refers to
a. the number of records added or deleted
from a file composed to
the original number of records in that file
b. efficiency with which non-sequential
files are processed
c. the extent where the records of the file
are contiguous and in
proximity to others
d. percentage of records that has changed
in a given time period
20 ) Which types of file organization
are supported by magnetic tape?
a. random files
b. contiguous sequential file
c. indexed sequential file
d. all of these
21 ) System supports two types of
file, which are
a. text files
b. executable binary files
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
22 ) The simplest directory structure
is
a. single level directory
b. two level directory
c. tree structure directory
d. none of these
3 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
23 ) Solution of name collision
problem is
a. single level directory
b. two level directory
c. tree structure
d. all of these
24 ) Path's name are
a. absolute path
b. relative path
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
25 ) Which structure prohibits the
sharing of files and directories?
a. tree structure
b. one level structure
c. two level structure
d. none of these
26 ) Shared sub-directories and files
are example of
a. a cyclic graph directory
b. tree structured direction
c. one level directory
d. none of these
27 ) There are no cycle in which type
of directory?
a. General graph directory
b. A cyclic graph directory
c. One level directory
d. Two level directory
28 ) The lowest level of I/0 control
consists of
a. device drivers
b. interrupt handlers
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
29 ) Access time is the highest in the
case of
a. floppy disk
b. cache
c. swapping devices
d. magnetic disks
30 ) The most common systems
security method is
a. passwords
b. key-card systems
c. mantrap
d. none of these
31 ) Dial-back systems
a. prevent hackers from calling the
computer
b. force the user to call the computer
twice to get access
c. require no effort by systems personnel
to implement
d. receive calls, and calls back if user is
authorized
32 ) Supervisor state is
a. entered by programs when they enter
the processor
b. required to perform any I/0
c. only allowed to the operating system
d. never used
33 ) Trojan-Horse programs
a. are legitimate programs that allow
unauthorized access
b. are hacker programs that do not show
up on the system
c. really do not usually work
d. usually are immediately discovered
34 ) Interrupts per second
a. is a good measure of the system I/0
activity
b. is a good measure of the system
paging activity
c. should never be greater than
1000/second
d. is higher on smaller computers
35 ) Control unit busy
a. is the same as device busy
b. shows the availability of the path of
devices
c. can be prevented with more devices
d. can be prevented by reducing the
paging rate
36 ) Multiple processor continuations
a. are more efficient than scalar
configurations
b. are less efficient than scalar
configurations
c. work equally well on all applications
d. are very efficient, but only on some
applications
37 ) Resources are managed
a. with each processor equally
b. by only one processor
c. by sophisticated locking mechanisms
d. more easily with multiple processors
4 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
38 ) In MULTICS
a. has segmented address space
b. each segment is file
c. segment is associated with the rings
d. all of these
39 ) Objects are represented by
a. rows
b. columns
c. tables
d. none of these
40 ) Security violation due to
a. malicious
b. accidental
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
41 ) A major security problem for
operating system is
a. authentication problem
b. physical problem
c. human problem
d. none of these
42 ) The most common approach to
authenticating a user identity is
a. user passwords
b. user log in
c. hardware device
d. none of these
43 ) In one time password
a. the password is different in each
instance
b. the password is same in each instance
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
44 ) Program threats are
a. Trojan Horse
b. trap doors
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
45 ) Trojan Horse
a. A code segment that misuses its file is
called Trojan horse
b. good for file accessing
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
46 ) Trap door
a. could be included in a compiler
b. pose a difficult problem because to
detect them
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
47 ) Worm
a. is a process that uses the spawn
mechanism to clobber system
performance
b. spawns copies of itself, using up
system resources and perhaps
locking out system used by all other
processes
c. both (1) and (2)
d. none of the above
48 ) Worm was made up
a. one program
b. two programs
c. three programs
d. all of the above
49 ) Protection against computer
viruses is
a. preventation
b. practice of safe computing
c. purchasing unopened software from
vendors
d. avoiding free or pirated copies from
public sources
50 ) Threat monitoring technique is
a. the system can check for suspicious
patterns of activity in an
attempt to detect a security violation
b. a time sharing a system that counts the
number of incorrect
passwords given
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
51 ) The security of a system can be
improved by
a. threat monitoring
b. audit log
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
52 ) Encryption
a. is one common method of protecting
information transmitted over
unreliable links
b. in crypted information is accessed by
an unauthorized person or
program, it will be useless unless it can be
decoded
c. both (1) and (2) above
d. none of the above
5 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
53 ) A system has 3 processes
sharing 4 resources. If each
process needs a maximum of 2 units
then
a. deadlock can never occur
b. deadlock may occur
c. deadlock has to occur
d. none of the above
54 ) 'm' processes share 'n' resources
of the same type. The maximum need
of each process doesn’t exceed 'n'
and the sum of all their maximum
needs is always less than m+n. In
this set up
a. deadlock can never occur
b. deadlock may occur
c. deadlock has to occur
d. none of the above
55 ) Some computer systems support
dual mode operations-the user mode
and the supervisor or monito mode.
These refer to the modes
a. by which user programmes handle their
data
b. by which the operating system
executes user programmes
c. in which the processor and the
associated hardware operate
d. of memory access
56 ) Which of the following page
replacement algorithms suffers from
Belady's anomaly?
a. Optimal replacement
b. LRU
c. FIFO
d. both optimal replacement and FIFO
57 ) Which of the following
scheduling policy is well suited for
a time-shared operating system?
a. Shortest job first
b. Round robin
c. First come first serve
d. Elevator
58 ) Memory protection is normally
done by
a. the processor and the associated
hardware
b. the operating system
c. the compiler
d. the user programme
59 ) In a paged segmented scheme of
memory management,
the segment table itself must have a
page table because
a. the segment table is often too large to
fit in one page
b. each segment is spread over a number
of pages
c. segment tables point to tables and not
to the physical location
of the segment
d. the processor's description base
register points to a page table
60 ) in real-time operating system,
which of the following is the most
suitable scheduling scheme?
a. round-robin
b. first-come-first-served
c. preemptive scheduling
d. random scheduling
61 ) An algorithm is best described as
a. A computer language
b. A step by step procedure for solving a
problem
c. A branch of mathematics
d. All of the above
62 ) The size of the virtual memory
depends on
a. the size of the data bus
b. the size of the main memory
c. the size of the address bus
d. none of the above
63 ) Semaphores are used to solve
the problem of
a. race condition
b. process synchronization
c. mutual exclusion
d. none of the above
64 ) Memory protection is of no use in
a
a. single user system
b. non-multiprogramming system
c. non-multitasking system
d. none of the above
65 ) What is the operating system
used by Macintosh computers?
a. System 7.0
b. AU/X
c. Xenix
d. none of the above
6 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
66 ) What is the name given to the
software which can be legally
compiled and often used for free?
a. Shareware programme
b. Public domain programme
c. Firmware programme
d. Mindware
67 ) The problem of thrasing is
affected significantly by
a. programme structure
b. programme size
c. primary storage size
d. all of the above
68 ) A multi-user, multi-processing
operating system cannot be
implemented on hardware that does
not support.
a. Address translation
b. DMA for disk transfer
c. At least two modes of CPU execution
(privileged and non-privileged)
d. All of the above
69 ) What is the name of the
technique in which the operating
system of a computer executes
several programme concurrently by
switching back and for the between
them?
a. Partitioning
b. Multitasking
c. Windowing
d. Paging
70 ) Which of the following is NOT a
valid deadlock prevention scheme?
a. Release all resources before requesting
a new resource
b. Number the resources uniquely and
never request a lower
numbered resource than the last one
requested
c. Never request a resource after
releasing any resource
d. none of the above

CMJU Exam papers 2013: contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

1 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
ATTEMPT ALL THE BELOW MENTIONED QUESTIONS:
1) If you want to plan project activities
such as developing new functionalities or
test cases, which of the following OOAD
artifacts is the most useful?
a. Sequence diagrams
b. Use cases
c. Domain model
d. Package diagrams
2) Which of the following is iterative,
incremental, use case driven and
architecture centric?
a. V-method
b. UML
c. Component Based Development
d. RUP
3) What is true about UML stereotypes?
a. A stereotype is used for extending the UML
language
b. A stereotyped class must be abstract.
c. The stereotype {frozen} indicates that the
UML element cannot be changed.
d. UML Profiles can be stereotyped for
backward compatibility
4) Consider a beverage machine. If the
actor is ‘customer’, and the scope is
‘machine’, what is
most likely to be found in the main
scenario of the use case ‘get drink’?
a. - enter choice
- if drink available then show price
- put in coins
- if paid enough then deliver drink
b. - customer enters choice
- machine shows price
- customer puts in coins
- machine delivers drink
c. - enter choice
- show price
- put in coins
- deliver drink
d. - machine sends price to LCD display
- customer puts in coins
- coin mechanism verifies amount and tells
machine controller
- machine controller ac2vates boiler
5 ) In C++, a function contained within a
class is called
a. Member function
b. A class function
c. A method
d. None of the above
6 ) which of the following are good
reasons to use an object
oriented languages?
a. You can define your own data types
b. Program statement are simpler than in
procedural language.
c. An object oriented program can be taught
to correct its own errors
d. None of the above
7) What can UML interfaces be used for?
a. to provide concrete classes with the
stereotype <<interface>>
b. to program in Java and C++, but not in
C#
c. to define executable logic that can be
reused in several classes
d. to specify required services for types of
objects
8) Consider the following design.
How would the introduction of a
subtotal() method in OrderLine improve
the design?
a. It enhances the coherence of Ar2cle.
b. It reduces the coupling of Order.
c. It reduces the coherence of Order.
d. It enhances the coupling of Ar2cle.
CMJ UNIVERSITY, SHILLONG
TERM END EXAMINATION -
Question Booklet Code: C Duration: 2 Hours
Paper Code: 702226 Paper Name: Data Structure Using C++
Course: Diploma in Engineering (CS) Year: Second Year
2013
2 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
9) What is correct about the following
Statechart Diagram?
a. ‘ON’ is a concurrent state.
b. This Statechart is invalid because it
contains no final state.
c. ‘play’, ‘stop’ and ‘rew’ are ac2ons.
d. ‘ON’ is a superstate.
10) Which of these activities COULD
occur simultaneously?
a. a44 and a66
b. a44, a33 and a22
c. a22 and a55
d. a77 and a66
11) Which are valid events in a State
diagram?
a. if()
b. when()
c. close()
d. before()
12) This is the structure of a well-known
GoF pattern; which one?
Client
operation()
Leaf
operation()
Component
operation()
Composite
a. Component
b. Delega2on
c. Polymorphism
d. Composite
13) Which of the following are known
refactorings (according to Fowler)?
a. Protect Variations
b. Replace Inheritance with Delega2on
c. Replace Delega2on with Inheritance
d. None of the above
14) If you need to show the physical
relationship between soCware
components and
the hardware in the delivered system,
which diagram can you use?
a. component diagram
b. deployment diagram
c. class diagram
d. network diagram
15) What is a true statement about the
following packages?
a. If package C changes, package B must be
inspected for necessary changes, and if
there are any, package A may have to be
adapted as well.
b. If package B changes, package A and
package C must be inspected for
necessary changes.
c. Packages should be designed so that a
change in one package does not have an
effect to other packages.
d. If package C changes, package A has to
be examined (as well as B), because
dependencies are transitive
16) What is true about a Sequence
Diagram?
a. It describes the behaviour of many Use
Cases
b. It describes the behaviour of a single Use
Case
c. It describes the behaviour of a single
object.
d. None of the above
17) Which GRASP pattern do you use to
decide who is going to handle the
incoming system events?
a. Controller
b. Low coupling
c. Adapter
d. Information Expert
18) Which diagram is NOT commonly
used for illustrating use cases?
a. system sequence diagram
b. activity diagram
c. use case diagram
d. collaboration diagram
19) If you want to plan project activities
such as developing new functionalities or
test cases, which of the following OOAD
are facts is the most useful?
a. Sequence diagrams
b. Use cases
c. Domain model
d. Package diagrams
20) Which of the following is iterative,
incremental, use case driven and
architecture centric?
a. V-method
b. UML
c. Component Based Development
d. RUP
3 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
21) What is true about UML stereotypes?
a. A stereotype is used for extending the UML
language.
b. A stereotyped class must be abstract.
c. The stereotype {frozen} indicates that the
UML element cannot be changed.
d. UML Profiles can be stereotyped for
backward compatibility
22) What can UML interfaces be used for?
a. to provide concrete classes with the
stereotype <<interface>>
b. to program in Java and C++, but not in
C#
c. to define executable logic that can be
reused in several classes
d. to specify required services for types of
objects
23) What are analysis classes?
a. Early conjectures on the composi2on of
the system that usually change over 2me,
rarely surviving intact into Implementation
b. Incomplete classes that require a
programmer to formalize opera2on
signatures and attribute types before they
can be implemented
c. The classes inside a systems Business
Object or Domain Model, in UML form
d. A prototype of a systems user interface,
developed during the Analysis Phase,
which allows users to define the systems
look and feel
24) Which statement is true?
a. The UML is a development process for
software intensive systems.
b. The UML is a process-dependent language
used for visualizing software ar2facts.
c. The UML is a modeling language for
software blueprints.
d. The UML is a visual programming language
25) Objects that are polymorphic _____.
a. must have the same attributes
b. share all the same operations, and the
operations perform the same
c. can only be implemented through
interfaces
d. may have the same opera2on names but
the operations perform differently
26) When a language has the capability
to reduce data types, it is said to be
a. Reprehensible
b. Encapsulated
c. Extensible
d. None of the above
27) A normal C++ operator that acts on
special system on newly defined data
types is said to be
a. Glorified
b. Encapsulated
c. Classified
d. Overloaded
28) A relational operator
a. Assigns operand to another
b. Yields a bo9olean result
c. Compares two operands
d. Logically combines two operands
29) A variable defined within a block is
visible
a. From the point of definition onward in the
program
b. From the point of definition onward in the
function
c. From the point of definition onward in the
block
d. Throughout the functions
30 ) The library function exist ( ) causes
an exit from
a. The loop in which it occurs
b. The block in which if occurs
c. The function in which it occurs
d. The program in which it occurs
31) Which statement is true about an
iterative development process?
a. Tes2ng and integra2on take place in every
itera2on.
b. An itera2on focuses on par2al comple2on
of selected use-case realizations.
c. It encourages user feedback in later
iterations.
d. It is based on func2onal decomposi2on of
a system
32) Which statement is true about
circular dependencies?
a. They do not matter.
b. They are prohibited.
c. They must be avoided.
d. When there are more than two packages,
they are irrelevant
33) What is the focus of analysis?
a. transla2ng func2onal requirements into
code
b. transla2ng requirements into a system
design
c. transla2ng real-world concepts into
solu2on-oriented objects
d. transla2ng func2onal requirements into
software concepts
4 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
34) When the interfaces between two
classes have been defined from a
sequence diagram, the ports are defined
by the _____.
a. interface
b. operations the class performs
c. user of the system
d. Attributes passed in the sequence diagram
35) Which is a characteristic of a
structured class?
a. must have one interface for each role it
plays
b. can play only one role, no maEer how
many objects transact with it
c. can play mul2ple roles that vary on the
objects that interact with it
d. is limited to one role, but can have
mul2ple interfaces
36) Computer systems are designed by
a. simplifying requirements of system
b. breaking of the system into smaller selfcontained
co-opera2ng subsystems
c. breaking up the systems into independent
parts
d. modular design
37) Functions and procedures are
a. not useful in designing computer systems
b. old fashioned and they are not useful
c. useful in designing computer systems
d. have side effects which require special
care if they are used as subsystems
38) A subsystem of a complex system
must specify
a. what task it performs
b. how it performs a task
c. with which subsystems it co-operates
d. how it co-operates with other systems
39) By polymorphism of a subsystem we
mean
a. it should be reusable
b. it should have polymorphic data types
c. it should accept generic commands and
interpret appropriately
d. it should morph polygons
40) A class is
a. a group of objects
b. template for objects of a par2cular type
c. a class of objects
d. a classification of objects
41) In UML diagram of a class
a. state of object cannot be represented
b. state is irrelevant
c. state is represented as an attribute
d. state is represented as a result of an
operation
42) Attributes are assigned value
a. when operations are performed on an
object
b. when instances of objects are defined
c. when methods are invoked
d. when classes are identified
43) A query operation on a object
a. has side effect
b. has no side effects
c. changes the state of an object
d. is not allowed
44) An instance of an object is created by
a
a. query operation
b. update operation
c. constructor operation
d. open operation
45) Equal to is a ____ operator.
a. Compiler
b. Variable
c. Logical
d. Comparison
46) An update operation in an object
instance
a. updates the class
b. has no side effects
c. deletes an instance
d. alters values of attribute(s) of an object
instance
47) In object-oriented design
a. operations and methods are iden2cal
b. methods specify algorithms whereas
operations only state what is to be done
c. methods do not change values of
attributes
d. methods and constructor are same
48) By abstraction in object-oriented
modelling we mean picking
a. only attributes appropriate to model an
object
b. only operations
c. both opera2on and attributes with
operations appropriate to model an object
d. the appropriate abstract data type
5 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
49) By encapsulation in object-oriented
modelling we mean
a. encapsula2ng data and programs
b. hiding attributes of an object from users
c. hiding operations on object from users
d. hiding implementation details of methods
from users of objects
50) Inheritance in object-oriented
system is used to
a. create new classes from existing classes
b. add new operations to exis2ng operations
c. add new attributes to exis2ng attributes
d. add new states to exis2ng states
51) When a subclass is created using
inheritance the resulting class
a. may have only attributes of parent class
b. may have only operations of parent class
c. may have new operations only in addition
to those in parent class
d. may have new attributes and new
operations in addition to those of the
parent class
52) By polymorphism in object-oriented
modelling we mean
a. the ability to manipulate objects of
different distinct classes
b. . the ability to manipulate objects of
different distinct classes knowing only their
common properties
c. use of polymorphic operations
d. use of similar operations to do similar
things
53) A polymorphic operation
a. has same name
b. has same name but uses different
methods depending on class
c. uses different methods to perform on the
same class
d. uses polymorphic method
54) An object is selected for modelling a
system provided
a. its attributes are invariant during opera2on
of the system
b. its attributes change during opera2on of
the system
c. it has numerous attributes
d. it has no attributes relevant to the system
55) An object is considered an external
entity in object-oriented modelling
a. its attributes are invariant during opera2on
of the system
b. its attributes change during opera2on of
the system
c. it has numerous attributes
d. it has no attributes relevant to the system
56) Object-oriented system modelling
using CRC method gives
a. Java programs for the system
b. C++ programs for the system
c. Classes of the system, their responsibili2es
and collabora2ng classes
d. Objective C programs for the system
57) The expansion of the acronym CRC is
a. Collec2ng Responsibili2es Classes
b. Collabora2ng with Relevant Classes
c. Class Responsibili2es and Collaborators
d. Crea2ng Relevant Classes
58) An Interaction Diagram should be
associated with:
a. a Use Case
b. an Ac2vity Diagram.
c. a CRC card.
d. a State Transition Diagram
59) Classes should be grouped into
packages by:
a. project team organiza2on.
b. classes that are related to the same overall
services.
c. classes that work together in the same
interac2on diagrams.
d. the class diagrams they appear in
60) Which of the following is NOT a UML
mechanism used to organize use cases?
a. Generaliza2on
b. Override
c. Extend
d. Include
61) In a well-designed layered
architecture, which layers should know
about which?
a. Model knows View and Persistence, View
knows Model and Persistence
b. View knows Model, Model knows
Persistence
c. View knows Model, Persistence knows View
and Model
d. View knows Model, Model knows View and
Persistence, Persistence knows Model
62) Abstraction, encapsulation,
inheritance, polymorph area.
Procedural programming
b. Objects
c. OOPS concepts
d. Algorithmic
63) GUI stands for
a. great user interface
b. graphical user interface
c. graphics usable implementation
d. graphical user implementation
6 | P a g e Center for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
64) HTML stands for
a. hyper text made lay
b. high text making lay
c. hyper text markup language
d. hyper text mark language
65) An exception in which we try to
access on object through a null reference
a. Null exception
b. pointer exception
c. zero exception
d. no exception
66) A character variable can at time store
a. 1 character
b. 8 character
c. 254 character
d. none of the above
67). C++ is a -
a. MLL
b. HLL
c. ALL
d. 4th gen. Lang
68) Bitwise operator allows youa.
Bit coordina2on
b. Complement
c. Bit manipula2on
d. Assignment
69) Ternary operator are basically
shorthand ofa.
Go to
b. While
c. If else
d. If else while
70) What variables can a method MF3
access?
a. A2,B2.C2
b. C2,C1
c. A2,,B2,B1,C2,,C1
d. A1,A2,B1,B2.C1,C2

CMJU Exam papers 2013: contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

1 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
Question Booklet Code: C Duration: 2 Hours
Course: Diploma in Engineering in Computer Science Year: Third Year
Paper Code: 702304 Paper Name: Internet Programming
ATTEMPT ALL THE BELOW MENTIONED QUESTIONS:
1. Which of the following services use
TCP?
DHCP
SMTP
HTTP
TFTP
FTP
A. 1 and 2
B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
2. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is
equivalent to the Transport layer of the
OSI model?
A. Application
B. Host-to-Host
C. Internet
D. Network Access
3. Which of the following describe the
DHCP Discover message?
It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2
broadcast.
It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol.
It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol.
It does not use a layer 2 destination address.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
4. You want to implement a mechanism
that automates the IP configuration,
including IP address, subnet mask,
default gateway, and DNS information.
Which protocol will you use to accomplish
this?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. DHCP
D. ARP
5. Which of the following is private IP
address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.15.14.36
D. 192.168.24.43
6. Which of the following allows a router
to respond to an ARP request that is
intended for a remote host?
A. Gateway DP
B. Reverse ARP (RARP)
C. Proxy ARP
D. Inverse ARP (IARP)
7. The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP
stack) has four layers. Which layer of the
DoD model is equivalent to the Network
layer of the OSI model?
A. Application
B. Host-to-Host
C. Internet
D. Network Access
8. Which of the following services use
UDP?
DHCP
SMTP
SNMP
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
A. 1, 3 and 6
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. All of the above
CMJ UNIVERSITY, SHILLONG
TERM END EXAMINATION - 2013
2 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
9. Which class of IP address provides a
maximum of only 254 host addresses per
network ID?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
10. If you use either Telnet or FTP, which
is the highest layer you are using to
transmit data?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
11. Which of the following is the decimal
and hexadecimal equivalents of the
binary number 10011101?
A. 155, 0x9B
B. 157, 0x9D
C. 159, 0x9F
D. 185, 0xB9
12. Which statements are true regarding
ICMP packets?
They acknowledge receipt of a TCP segment.
They guarantee datagram delivery.
They can provide hosts with information about
network problems.
They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
13. Which of the following are layers in
the TCP/IP model?
Application
Session
Transport
Internet
Data Link
Physical
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 5
D. 3, 4 and 5
14. Which layer 4 protocol is used for a
Telnet connection?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. TCP/IP
D. UDP
15. Which statements are true regarding
ICMP packets?
ICMP guarantees datagram delivery.
ICMP can provide hosts with information about
network problems.
ICMP is encapsulated within IP datagrams.
ICMP is encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. All of the above
16. Which of the following are TCP/IP
protocols used at the Application layer of
the OSI model?
IP
TCP
Telnet
FTP
TFTP
A. 1 and 3
B. 1, 3 and 5
C. 3, 4 and 5
D. All of the above
17. What protocol is used to find the
hardware address of a local device?
A. RARP
B. ARP
C. IP
D. ICMP
18. Which of the following protocols uses
both TCP and UDP?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. Telnet
D. DNS
19. What is the address range of a Class
B network address in binary?
A. 01xxxxxx
B. 0xxxxxxx
C. 10xxxxxx
D. 110xxxxx
20. HTML stands for;
a. Hyper text marker language
b. Hyper tab marker language.
c. High transfer markup language
d. Hyper text markup language
21. Html is used for:
a. Hardware programming
b. Software programming
c. Web programming
d. All of these
3 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
22. Tags are used to describe:
a. Web page
b. Wed site
c. Web size
d. None of these
23. Html code contains:
a. Tags
b. Attributes
c. Elements
d. All of these
24. To create and view an html document,
which tools are used:
a. Text editor
b. Web browser
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
25. Html document must always be saved
with:
a. .html
b. .htm
c. .doc
d. Both a &b
26. How many levels of headings are in
html:
a. 2
b. 7
c. 6
d. 4
27. Break element is used to insert :
a. A new line
b. New text
c. A blank line
d. None of these
28. To insert blank lines, which tags are
used:
a. <p>
b. <bk>
c. <br>
d. <ba>
29. To centralize any text, it is simply
enclosed within:
a. <center>
b. <cen>
c. <centr>
d. <cent>
30. Horizontal rule element is used to
divide the webpage into:
a. Two sections
b. Separate sections
c. Four sections
d. All sections
31. The type attribute can be used with
_________ tag for setting the type for
the entire list:
a. <ty>
b. <li>
c. <ol>
d. <ul>
32. It can be used with individual
_________ tag to set the type of a
particular list item:
a. <ul>
b. <li>
c. <ol>
d. <ty>
33. Image element has only an opening
tag:
a. <im>
b. <ima>
c. <img>
d. <image>
34. The align attribute is used to adjust :
a. The size of image
b. Color of image
c. Shape of image
d. Position of the image
35. The default value of border is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0
36. By default,the background color of the
web page is:
a. Black
b. Red
c. Pink
d. White
37. The hexadecimal number of white
color:
a. #ffffff
b. #fffeee
c. #fefefe
d. #efefef
38. The hexadecimal number of red color
is:
a. #ff0110
b. #ff0111
c. #ff0000
d. #ff1001
4 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
39. To create a link in the same document
how many anchor elements are used:
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five
40. The first anchor element is specified
with which attribute:
a. Name
b. Wfhy
c. Abfg
d. Href
41. The second anchor element is
specified with:
a. Href
b. Hrfe
c. Name
d. Hghj
42. Frames are used to divide the browser
window into:
a. Dependent segments
b. Two dependent segments
c. Four independent segments
d. Various independent segments
43. Web pages created using frames can
contain:
a. Table of contents
b. Navigation links
c. Footnotes,banners
d. All of these
44. To create a frameset
document,________ element is included
in an html document:
a. Frames
b. Frameset
c. Font
d. Html
45. The syntax of the frame element is:
a. <fra>
b. <fram>
c. <frame>
d. <frameset>
46. Web publishing means:
a. Collecting the web pages
b. Publishing the web pages
c. Storing the web pages
d. None of these
47. The most common place for
publishing the web page is on the web
space provided by:
a. DNS
b. URL
c. ISP
d. All of these
48. Scripting languages can be used to
provide:
a. Simple features to the web page
b. Main features to theweb page
c. Dynamic features to the web page
d. None of these
49. Most common scripting language is:
a. Html
b. C
c. C++
d. JavaScript
50. JavaScript language was developed
by:
a. Microsoft
b. Sun
c. Nsf
d. Netscape
51. JavaScript is used for:
a. Client-side applications
b. Data validation
c. Creating interactive forms
d. All of these
52. Your router has the following IP
address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23.
Which of the following can be valid host
IDs on the LAN interface attached to the
router?
172.16.1.100
172.16.1.198
172.16.2.255
172.16.3.0
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. None of the above
53. Which two statements describe the
IP address 10.16.3.65/23?
The subnet address is 10.16.3.0
255.255.254.0.
The lowest host address in the subnet is
10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
The last valid host address in the subnet is
10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
The broadcast address of the subnet is
10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
5 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
54. What is the maximum number of IP
addresses that can be assigned to hosts
on a local subnet that uses the
255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 30
55. You need to subnet a network that
has 5 subnets, each with at least 16
hosts. Which classful subnet mask would
you use?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
56. You have a network that needs 29
subnets while maximizing the number of
host addresses available on each subnet.
How many bits must you borrow from the
host field to provide the correct subnet
mask?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
57. If an Ethernet port on a router were
assigned an IP address of
172.16.112.1/25, what would be the valid
subnet address of this host?
A. 172.16.112.0
B. 172.16.0.0
C. 172.16.96.0
D. 172.16.255.0
58. You have an interface on a router
with the IP address of
192.168.192.10/29. Including the router
interface, how many hosts can have IP
addresses on the LAN attached to the
router interface?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 30
D. 32
59. What is the subnetwork number of a
host with an IP address of
172.16.66.0/21?
A. 172.16.36.0
B. 172.16.48.0
C. 172.16.64.0
D. 172.16.0.0
60. The network address of
172.16.0.0/19 provides how many
subnets and hosts?
A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
B. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
C. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
D. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
61. You need to configure a server that is
on the subnet 192.168.19.24/29. The
router has the first available host
address. Which of the following should
you assign to the server?
A. 192.168.19.0 255.255.255.0
B. 192.168.19.33 255.255.255.240
C. 192.168.19.26 255.255.255.248
D. 192.168.19.31 255.255.255.248
62. You have an interface on a router
with the IP address of
192.168.192.10/29. What is the
broadcast address the hosts will use on
this LAN?
A. 192.168.192.15
B. 192.168.192.31
C. 192.168.192.63
D. 192.168.192.127
63. You have a network with a subnet of
172.16.17.0/22. Which is the valid host
address?
A. 172.16.17.1 255.255.255.252
B. 172.16.0.1 255.255.240.0
C. 172.16.20.1 255.255.254.0
D. 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0
64. On a VLSM network, which mask
should you use on point-to-point WAN
links in order to reduce the waste of IP
addresses?
A. /27
B. /28
C. /29
D. /30
65. To test the IP stack on your local
host, which IP address would you ping?
A. 127.0.0.0
B. 1.0.0.127
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.255
6 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
66. Which of the following is true when
describing a multicast address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are
delivered to a single interface.
B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces
identified by the address. This is also called a
one-to-many address.
C. Identifies multiple interfaces and is only
delivered to one address. This address can
also be called one-to-one-of-many.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting
purposes, but they are almost globally unique
so it is unlikely they will have an address
overlap.
67. Which of the following is true when
describing a unicast address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are
delivered to a single interface.
B. These are your typical publicly routable
addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in
that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting
purposes, but they are almost globally unique
so it is unlikely they will have an address
overlap.
68. To enable OSPFv3, which of the
following would you use?
A. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 ospf 10 area
0.0.0.0
B. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 router rip 1
C. Router1(config)# ipv6 router eigrp 10
D. Router1(config-rtr)# no shutdown
69. What multicast addresses does RIPng
use?
A. FF02::A
B. FF02::9
C. FF02::5
D. FF02::6
70. Which statement(s) about IPv6
addresses are true?
Leading zeros are required.
Two colons (::) are used to represent
successive hexadecimal fields of zeros.
Two colons (::) are used to separate fields.
A single interface will have multiple IPv6
addresses of different types.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. All of the above

IIBM Exam papers: contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

Examination Paper: BPO Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 1
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper MM.100
BPO Industry
Section A: Objective Type (30 Marks)
•This section consists of Multiple Choices and Short notes type Questions.
•Answer all the questions
•Part one carry 1 mark each and Part Two questions carry 4 marks each.
Part One:
Multiple Choices:
1. Which of the following is not included in Porter’s Five Model for competitiveness?
a. Threat of New Entrants
b. Degree of Rivalry
c. Bargaining Power of Suppliers
d. Government Strategies
2. Which of the following is not a benefit of a BPO?
a. Cost Reduction
b. Cross – pollination of best products
c. Focus on core process
d. Automatic call distributions
3. In stage there is orderly transfer of activities to the service provider.
a. Negotiation
b. Ongoing Management
c. Implementation
d. Preparation
4. List the Process of Outsourcing in appropriate order:
i. Listing out available in – house resources
ii. Signing the contract
iii. Negotiations, including a letter of intent and usually a contract with terms & conditions
iv. ‘Steady state’ period, which makes the end of the transitioning phase and the beginning of
the cost cutting phase of the company
a. i, iii, ii, iv
b. i, iv, iii, ii
c. i, ii, iii, iv
d. I, iii, iv, ii
Examination Paper: BPO Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 2
5. The BPO that handles almost all the transactional and administrative processes or other several
functions are:
a. Comprehensive BPO
b. Transactional BPO
c. Niche BPO
d. ITO
6. The model which is preferred when the client requires that the job should be done quickly and
successfully:
a. Revenue Distance Model
b. Global delivery Model
c. Built – Operate – Transfer Model
d. Blended Offshore Outsourcing Model
7. Which of the following is not a main certifying agency for Indian BPO?
a. IRDA
b. KPMG
c. DNV
d. STQC
8. Challenges related to information infrastructure and branding is a type of a KPO
challenge.
a. Internal Challenge
b. Industry Challenge
c. Customer Challenge
d. Competitor Challenge
9. Which of the following is not a dimension of service quality?
a. Empathy
b. Reliability
c. Assurance
d. Responsiveness
10. COPC – 2000 is a:
a. Quality Certificate
b. Measurement Certificate
c. Performance Certificate
d. Regulatory Certificate
Part Two:
1. Differentiate between BPO, KPO and PPO.
2. Define the term ‘COBIT’.
3. Write a short note on ‘Corporate Governance’.
4. Differentiate between BPO and Call Centers.
5. Define ‘Outsourcing’.
END OF SECTION A
Examination Paper: BPO Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 3
Section B: Caselets (40 Marks)
•This section consists of Caselets
•Answer all the questions
•Each Caselet carries 20 marks.
•Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 Words)
Caselet 1
Company Background
CBay Systems Ltd. was founded in 1998 by Raman Kumar, Skip Conover and Mahidhar Reddy. The
Annapolis based healthcare BPO is a leading provider of medical transcription services to US hospitals.
CBay provides transcription and information management services to hospitals, integrated health care
facility networks, medical clinics and physicians. CBay’s HIPAA – complaint solutions leverage leading
Internet technologies and the world’s most highly credentialed transcriptionists to provide easier, more
secure, accurate and cost – effective medical transcription.
CBay’s Development and Process Centre is located in Mumbai and Bangalore, India. Additional offices
are located in Taylor, Michigan and Mumbai, Hyderabad, India. The company employs over 1,250 on its
own rolls and 2,500 employees on its franchisee rolls. An upwards of 3 million files are processed on an
annual basis.
The avert of government regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
(HIPAA) coupled with increasingly stringent insurance company requirements today are driving the need
for more efficient, accurate and secure medical transcription. Under HIPAA, transcription service
providers have to implement technology and business processes to ensure the security and confidentiality
of patient information, and establish an audit trail of all those who have accessed this information. This
area in the medical transcription space is CBay’s forte. CBay offers state of art in – house developed
software solutions, which enable total control over the entire transcription process – from dictation to
transcription to records management. “Our main USP is technology, which differentiates us from others”,
agrees Dinesh Kumar, Director of Indian Operations. HIPAA is likely to become a law sometime during
fiscal 2005 and conversion entails huge investments between US$ 18 to 23 Billion (greater than Y2K
solutions) and expertise in IT systems. It is here that CBay commands a strategic niche as its expertise in
technology will enable hospitals and medical practices to not only achieve full HIPAA compliance and
streamline transcription processing and management, but also importantly to realize substantial savings.
Also because all information can be accessed via standard Internet connections using existing hardware
and systems, there is minimum capital investment.
CBay has developed its infrastructure, hardware and software architecture with security as the paramount
concern. From state – of – the – art encryption technologies, redundant architectures and security
monitoring to disaster prevention and recovery measures, CBay has catered to all of the above issues.
“The primary challenge facing CBay developers are the automation of logistics”, feels Harsha
Kollaramaraju, the Chief Technology Officer of CBay. The amount of data to be handled, the number of
transactions that needs tracking is phenomenally high. Since CBay has a global delivery model, it is
important to have a system that is totally distributed, with different pieces in different places collaborating
to fulfill each transaction, he further adds.
The biggest challenge however is to handle the discrete elements such as dictation, demographics data,
medical reports, which are all separately created and processed, although they are part of the same
transaction. The software makes sure the integrity of data in each transaction and accurately delivers the
right data to right people in different places.
Examination Paper: BPO Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 4
Operations Model:
CBay operates through a strong network of 35 franchisee centers that includes Captive centers in
Mumbai, Hyderabad and Bangalore. These franchisees are distributed in different parts of the country
covering all the metros Delhi, Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore and other major cities
like Trivandrum, Pune, Chandigarh, Guwahati, Baroda, Nagpur, Pondicherry etc. these centers have
either been started by individual entrepreneurs or have been the ventures of large established business
houses. All of these units work in close association with CBay, who helps them in training and
certification of the MLS, adhering to the quality norms, quality audits, work load balancing and all other
operational issues that arise from time to time. The work is routed to these different centers based on
several criterions such as amount of work these centers can handle, type of dictators they can handle, their
performance in terms of quality and their ability to return work within the predetermined timeframe. The
various franchisee centers transcribe the documents, check the quality through the various levels such as
proofers and editors and upload the records back to the CBay server in the pre – decided time frame.
These files are then randomly checked and only after the quality team is assured about the quality of
transcribed records, they are sent to the clients. The production units comply with the quality and time
constraints that CBay has promised its clients. Few centers also run multiple shifts and 24/7 operations to
cater client specific requirements. “are our partners in progress”, sums up Dinesh Kumar, Head – CBay
India Operations, who is also responsible for liaison with these franchisees or production units as they are
more fondly called. CBay’s offices in Mumbai and Bangalore manage the Indian operations. These
offices have 24/7 operations to provide support to vendors and service the clients.
Solutions offered by CBay
Different types of healthcare providers characterize the US healthcare industry. There are small 4 – 5
doctor practices, medium sized clinics operating with 20 – 25 doctors and operating out of more than one
location and large hospitals where operations and other complex medical procedures are conducted. These
entire have different type of work also varies. For example, a large hospital will have more of operative
reports while a small clinic will normally have more of operative reports while a small clinic will
normally have more of office notes or follow up reports. CBay has solutions of all of these types of
possible clients. Very broadly, CBay offers the following four types of solutions:
1. CATTS – CBay’s automated Transcription Tracking System allows hospitals and clinics on legacy
systems to tap CBay’s networks of 2500 transcriptions in the US and India.
2. CBayScribe: A sophisticated recording, routing and distribution portal that is combined with unrivalled
transcription expertise to meet the needs of small and medium sized physician practices.
3. CBay Flo – An advanced solution for recording, routing, transcription and reconciliation, with HL7
integration of large hospitals and clinics.
4. A+ Network – An end to end dictation, transcription and document management platform offered to
large integrated healthcare networks.
Each of these solutions has several production units attached to it. There are some production centers that
operate on multiple platforms. Each of these has a separate QA center to monitor and control quality.
Through a part of the same organization, they operate independently as they cater to completely different
profile providers and hence have requirements that are different. As each of these uses a different
software platform, the operations guidelines differ.
CATTS
CBay’s Automated Transcription Tracking System (CATTS), allows the doctors, administrators etc. to
view the status of a record from the moment it enters the system until the final transcribed version is sent
Examination Paper: BPO Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 5
back to the hospital/clinic. This software allows the users to know the status of their dictated record all the
time, every time till they get the transcribed record back. By means of a simple query into the CATTS
database, the system can provide the status of every dictated voice file. CATTS is a manually operated
platform, which is being slowly transitioned to other more automated platforms.
CBayScribe
CBayScribe is the first end – to –end service that gives medical practices the speed and efficiency once
reserved for large hospitals. Physicians dictate on digital recorders, over the phone, or on a PDA
(Personal Digital Assistant). Transcriptions are guaranteed next day, with 98 – point accuracy. And
detailed reports can be accessed over the Internet, any time, from any place. CBayScribe aims to fulfill
the transcription needs of a physician practices, medium sized and smaller clinics etc. with the level of
security and audit trail to meet HIPAA standards.
CBayScribe provides the dictators with Olympus Dictaphone, which has the capacity to store upto two
and half hours of dictation. They can dictate the patient records and details at their leisure and upload
either all at once or in batches as per their convenience. Report Pro allows the doctors to upload the
dictation to the CBay server or CBayScribe web services as it is called. The webserver routes these files
based on how these dictators have been allocated to the production units, their capacity and some other
criterion to the production centers. It also automatically sends the accessory documents such as
demographic information (about the patient whose medical record is to be transcribed), templates related
information and any other instructions given by the doctors to the respective franchisee/captive units.
CBay Flo
CBay Flo is the latest transcription platform devised by CBay’s software development team in Bangalore.
It enhances the ease with which transcription jobs are managed easily. CBay Flo facilities ease of
operation at every step of the transcription process right from capturing the dictators from a legacy server
or from its dictation server to allocation of dictations to stipulated transcriptionists automatically,
reducing the time needed for the transcriptionist to access the dictation. CBay Flo uses a Six Sigma
process for quality management. This process ensures the accuracy of the document in meeting customer
requirements with regards to consistent quality and turnaround time. CBay Flo has various delivery
mechanisms for the delivery of transcription reports. The reports can be printed or faxed or can be
directly delivered to an HIS (Health Information System). This allows the reports to be generated using
RTF, PDF and Plaintext formats. CBay Flo facilitates a free archival of all the transcribed reports on its
servers. CBay clients can use this facility to obtain an older transcribed report. CBay Flo is a completely
HIPAA complaint solution for managing transcriptions. It uses 128 – bit encrypted channels for the
transfer of jobs and a complete audit trail for each job. There is also a physical security provided to
servers, which host the dictators and transcription reports. The Electronic signature E – sign feature
provides a mechanism of remote Internet signing with automatic tracking of records on every edit for
compliance auditing purposes.
A+ Network
A+ Network is the winning combination of leading edge HIM software and unrivaled transcription
expertise. A+ Network tracks when and where each report is accessed and by whom. Every activity such
as dictating, transcribing, viewing, printing, faxing, QA editing, and physician – signing occurrence is
audited with HIPAA – complaint audit reports. In order to provide a fully outsourced, exceptionally
flexible turnkey transcription service combining unrivaled transcription expertise and leading HIM
software, CBay has tied up with Arrendale Associates. The A+ Network handles everything from
integrating the existing, dictation process, full transcription, comprehensive document management and
achieving. All of this is done on CBay’s secure servers. 7x24x365 access over the Internet is protected by
complete audit trails and high – level security to meet and surpass strict HIPAA requirements.
Examination Paper: BPO Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 6
Question:
1. Discuss in detail about the solutions offered by CBay to the healthcare providers.
Caselet 2
Company Background
Suyash software Private limited started as a franchisee of CBayScribe in the month of May 2002 in
Nagpur, Central India. The year 2003 was very difficult for healthcare BPO franchisees as a number of
companies had shut shop due to quality issues and several people had become unemployed. All of this
had made people skeptical about the profession and its long – term potential. “Since Suyash began as a
franchisee of CBay, getting business was never any issue with us and hence we could concentrate on
quality and employee development,” says G. R. Thengdi, chairman of Suyash Software. “Nagpur has a
good educational base with thousands of graduates being churned out every year. Unfortunately
employment opportunities are not commensurate with the supply of graduates. This means that a large
chunk of the population is perennially in search of jobs. Our company targets this very group, grooms
them in the nuances of the healthcare BPO job and provides them a career which is life- long, solid,
progressive and satisfying,” he adds.
“As a franchisee of CBay we got a tremendous head start, right from the recruitment of transcription staff
to orienting them in the rigorous quality requirements and standards of CBay in particular and HIPPA in
general, to advise on technological setup. CBay helped us thoroughly at every stage,” says Samit
Admane, Production Head at Suyash Software. CBay has pooled its capsule and every franchise or
production unit has access to this.
“Currently the company is fully involved in offering only transcription services to the clients of CBay.
But we might plan to move up the value chain in the near future. This would mean offering other related
services such as medical coding, billing etc,” says Thengdi.
Career Opportunities
Training is the first and only entry point into the profession. Graduates of any discipline are taken.
However science graduates learn faster as they are already familiar with the human body, anatomy etc (as
these are part of the biology course at the final school-leaving exam syllabus). The training programme is
divided into various modules include courses on medicine, anatomy, pharmacology, English grammar,
transcription style and method, accent training (to understand, not to speak ),typing skills, training in
using Internet search engines, basic computer and keyboard skills etc.”Quality consciousness, time virtues
that need to be ingrained at this stage itself,” feels Shirish Baptiwale, head of training at Suyash. “Once
these virtues become virtues become a habit, you have long-term good employs with you,” he adds.
Suyash has a full-fledged training centre and conducts training programmes throughout the year. Topics
like medicine and pharmacology are quite daunting for students coming in from non – science
backgrounds and they also need to be constantly motivated and encouraged. “The first one month is
difficult, after which they get into the groove,” says Dr Swapan Dutta, who teaches medical subjects at
the Suyash Academy of Medical Transcription.
New recruits at Suyash are selected from among the trainees or hired directly as an MLS if they have
already undergone a training programme elsewhere and pass the entry – level transcription test. Growth is
completely performance – based. “Of course, other things like attitude to work, attendance and sincerity
are also rewarded,” says Thengdi. Suyash has had instances of MLS becoming editors in matter of months
simply because they demonstrated the necessary qualities mentioned above. The owners are directly
involved in all aspects of the business, even day – to – day operations. The company follows open – door
policy and anybody can at any point of time talk to anybody in the company, including the top
management. This gives everybody the confidence that they will be listened to and get the same
Examination Paper: BPO Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 7
opportunities as anybody else. In addition to the salary there is an incentive scheme that automatically
rewards hard work and sincerity.
“Suyash aims to be one o the best employers, and provide its employees more than just a job. The
company also regularly organizes programmes to distress its staff members. The first of May every year
is celebrated as Suyash Day, when all members participate actively to make it memorable. In winter, a
picnic is organized for everybody. All birthdays are celebrated, and a Diwali party is a regular affair. We
have several plans in the pipeline to make working with Suyash a happy and growth – oriented journey,”
adds Thengdi.
Future
This future is here to stay; no backslash or any other problem can stop the outsourcing of jobs in the
healthcare sector. This is because here there are no job losses. No American loses his/her job because of
outsourcing; it is used to bridge the severe demand – supply imbalance in the US. “This is a sound long –
term career with growth opportunities not only within the company but even outside it, i.e.,
entrepreneurial opportunities are plenty. India has already established its track record of providing quality
service in the tightest of time schedules. We must take advantage of this opportunity and become a part of
the profession,” feels Thengdi.
Question:
1. Discuss in detail about the career opportunities with Suyash software.
Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)
•This section consists of Applied Theory Questions.
•Answer all the questions.
•Each question carries 10 marks.
•Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 200 to 250 Words )
1. Explain porter’s Five Forces Model of Competition with reference to the BPO Industry in India.
2. Discuss in detail the main challenges of BPO Industry.
3. What are the different models of Business Process Outsourcing?
END OF SECTION B
END OF SECTION C

CMJU Exam papers 2013: contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

1 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
Question Booklet Code: C Duration: 2 Hours
Course: Diploma in Architecture Assistantship Year: First Year
Paper Code: 702101 Paper Name: Engineering
Physics
ATTEMPT ALL THE BELOW MENTIONED QUESTIONS:
1. The length of second’s pendulum on
the surface of earth is 1 m. the length of
same pendulum on the surface of moon,
where acceleration due to gravity is
(1/6)th of the g on the surface of earth is
(a) 36 m
(b) 1 m
(c)
(d)
2. A mass M is suspended from a light
spring. If the additional mass m is added,
it displaces the spring by a distance x.
now the combined mass will oscillate on
the spring with time period equals to
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3. The displacement of particle
performing simple harmonic motion is
given by, x = 8 sin wt + 6 cos wt, where
distance is in cm and time is in second.
The amplitude of motion is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 2 cm
(d) 3.5 cm
4. A simple pendulum is set up in a
trolley which moves to the right with an
acceleration a on a horizontal plane. Then
the thread of the pendulum in the mean
position makes an angle q with the
vertical
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5. The angular velocity and the amplitude
of a simple pendulum is ‘w’ and ‘a’
respectively. At a displacement x from
the mean position its kinetic energy is T
and potential energy is V, then the ratio
of T to V is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
CMJ UNIVERSITY, SHILLONG
TERM END EXAMINATION - 2013
2 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
6. A particle executes S.H.M. of amplitude
A. at what distance from mean position
its kinetic energy is equal to its potential
energy?
(a) 0.51 A
(b) 0.61 A
(c) 0.71 A
(d) 0.81 A
7. A simple pendulum of length l and
mass (bob) m is suspended vertically.
The string makes an angle q with the
vertical. The restoring force acting on the
pendulum, is
(a) mg tan q
(b) mg sin q
(c) - mg sin q
(d) - mg cos q
8. The mass and diameter of a planet are
twice those of earth. the period of
oscillation of pendulum on this planet will
be (if it is a second’s pendulum on earth)
(a)
(b)
(c) 2 second
(d)
9. A second’s pendulum is placed in space
laboratory orbiting around the earth at a
height 3R from earth’s surface where R is
earth’s radius. The time period of the
pendulum will be
(a) Zero
(b)
(c) 4 s
(d) Infinite
10. The pendulum is acts as second
pendulum on earth. Its time on a planet,
whose mass and diameter are twice that
of earth, is
(a)
(b) 2 s
(c)
(d) 1/
11. A particle of mass m is hanging
vertically by an ideal spring of force
constant K. if the mass is made to
oscillate vertically, its total energy is
(a) Maximum at extreme position
(b) Maximum at mean position
(c) Minimum at mean position
(d) Same at all positions
12. At a place where g = 980 cm/sec2.
the length of seconds pendulum is about
(a) 50 cm
(b) 100 cm
(c) 2 cm
(d) 2 m
13. The maximum velocity for particle in
SHM is 0.16 m/s and maximum
acceleration is 0.64 m/s2. The amplitude
is
(a) 4 ´ 10-2 m
(b) 4 ´ 10-1 m
(c) 4 ´ 10 m
(d) 4 ´ 100 m
14. A particle is vibrating in S.H.M. with
an amplitude of 4 cm. at what
displacement from the equilibrium
position is its energy half potential and
half kinetic?
(a) 2.5 cm
(b)
(c) 3 cm
(d) 2 cm
15. The time period of a spring pendulum
is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
16. The equation of displacement of
particle performing SHM is X = 0.25 sin
(200 t). The maximum velocity is
(a) 100 m/s
(b) 200 m/s
(c) 50 m/s
(d) 150 m/s
3 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
17. A pendulum suspended from the roof
of a train has a period T (When the train
is at rest). When the train is accelerating
with a uniform acceleration ‘a’, the time
period of the pendulum will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain unaffected
(d) Become infinite
18. A particle executing a vibratory
motion while passing through the mean
position has
(a) Maximum P.E. and minimum K.E.
(b) Maximum K.E. and minimum P.E.
(c) P.E. and K.E. both maximum
(d) P.E. and K.E. both minimum
19. The frequency of wave is 0.002 Hz.
Its time period is
(a) 100 s
(b) 500 s
(c) 5000 s
(d) 50 s
20. A simple pendulum has a period T. it
is taken inside a lift moving up with
uniform acceleration g/3. now its time
period will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21. For a magnet of time period T
magnetic moment is M, if the magnetic
moment becomes one fourth of the initial
value, then the time period of oscillation
becomes.
(a) Half of initial value
(b) One fourth of initial value
(c) Double of initial value
(d) Four time initial value
22. The value of displacement of particle
performing SHM, when kinetic energy is
(3/4)th of its total energy is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
23. The shape of l - T graph of simple
pendulum is,
(a) Curve
(b) Parabola
(c) Straight line
(d) Hyperbola
24. A simple pendulum is suspended from
the roof of a trolley which moves in a
horizontal direction with an acceleration
‘a’ then the time period is given T = 2p
, where g is equal to
(a) u ag
(b) 3 - a
(c) g + a
(d)
25. Two equal negative charges -q are
fixed at point (0, a) and (0, -a) on the Yaxis
A positive charge q is released from
rest at point (2a, 0) on the X-axis. The
charge Q will
(a) Execute simple harmonic motion about the
origin
(b) Move to the origin and remained at rest
(c) Move to infinity
(d) Execute oscillatory motion but not simple
harmonic motion
26. If x a sin and x’ a cos t, then
what is the phase difference between the two
waves
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) 
4 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
27. When a sound wave of frequency 300 Hz
passes through a medium, the maximum
displacement of a particle of the medium is 0.1
cm. the maximum velocity of the particle is
equal to
(a) 60 cm/s
(b) 30 cm/s
(c) 30 cm/s
(d) 60 cm/s
28. Two tuning forks A and B vibrating
simultaneously produce 5 beats. Frequency of
B is 512 Hz. It is seen that if one arm of a is
filed, then the number of beats increases.
Frequency of A will be
(a) 502 Hz
(b) 507 Hz
(c) 517 Hz
(d) 522 Hz
29. A simple harmonic wave having amplitude
A and time period T is represented by the
equation y 5 sin (t 4) metres. Then the
value of A (in metres) and T (in seconds) are
(a) A 5, T 2
(b) A 10, T 1
(c) A 5, T 1
(d) A 10, T 2
30. Which one of the following cannot
represent a traveling wave
(a) y f (x −t)
(b) y ym sin k (x t)
(c) y ym log (x −t)
(d) y f (x2 −t2)
31. Which of the following statements is
wrong
(a) Sound travels in a straight line
(b) Sound travels as waves
(c) Sound is a form of energy
(d) Sound travels faster in vacuum that then in air
32. The equation of a progressive wave
traveling on a stretched string is y 10 sin
where x and y are in cm and t is
in sec. what is the speed of the wave?
(a) 500 cm/s
(b) 50 m/s
(c) 40 m/s
(d) 400 cm/s
33. When a compression is incident on rigid
wall it is reflected as
(a) Compression with a phase change of 
(b) Compression with no phase change
(c) Rarefaction with a phase change of 
(d) Rarefaction with no phase change
34. The wavelength of sound in air is 10 cm.
its frequency is, (Given velocity of sound 330
m/s)
(a) 330 cycles per second
(b) 3.3 kilo cycles per second
(c) 30 mega-cycles per second
(d) 3 × 105 cycles per second
35. Two waves are represented by y1 a sin
and y2 a cos t. what will be their
resultant amplitude?
(a) a
(b)
(c)
(d) 2 a
36. Sound waves having the following
frequencies are audible to human beings
(a) 5 c/s
(b) 27000 c/s
(c) 5000 c/s
(d) 50,000 c/s
37. A sound wave is represented by y a sin
(1000t −3x). the distance between two
points having a phase difference of 60is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
38. The equation of wave traveling along
string is y 3 cos (100t −x) in C.G.S. unit
then wavelength is
(a) 1 m
(b) 2 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) None of above
5 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
39. A siren emitting a note of frequency n is
fitted on a police van, traveling towards a
stationary listener. What is the velocity of the
van, if the frequency of he note heard by the
listener is double the original frequency?
(a) VS V
(b)
(c) VS 2V
(d)
40. In the longitudinal waves the direction of
vibration in medium of particle is
(a) Perpendicular to propagation of wave
(b) Parallel to propagation
(c) Different from each other
(d) Variable for time to time.
41. The relation between frequency n,
wavelength and velocity of a wave is
(a) n 
(b) n
(c)
(d)
42. With the propagation of a longitudinal
wave through a material medium the
quantities transmitted in the propagation
direction are
(a) Energy, momentum and mass
(b) Energy
(c) Energy and mass
(d) Energy and linear momentum
43. A wave is represented by the equation y 
A sin (10x 15t ), where x is in meters
and t is in seconds. The expression represents
(a) A wave traveling in the positive x-direction with a
velocity 1.5 m/s
(b) A wave traveling the negative x-direction with a
velocity 1.5 m/s
(c) A wave traveling in the negative x-direction have
a wave-length 0.2 m
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
44. Loudness of a note of sound is
(a) Directly proportional to amplitude of the wave
(b) Directly proportional to square of amplitude of
wave
(c) Directly proportional to velocity of the wave
(d) Directly proportional to square of velocity of the
wave
45. The velocity of sound is maximum in
(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Vacuum
(d) Metal
46. A wave is represented by the equation y 
7 sin , where x is in meters
and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is,
(a) 175 m/s
(b) (49 ) m/s
(c) (49 / ) m/s
(d) (0.28 ) m/s
47. Two wave having the intensities in the
ratio of 9: 1 produce interference. The ratio of
maximum to minimum intensity is equal to
(a) 10 : 8
(b) 9 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
48. Two tuning forks of frequencies 256 and
258 vibrations/second are sounded together.
Then the time interval between two
consecutive maxima heard by an observer is
(a) 2 sec
(b) 0.5 sec
(c) 250 sec
(d) 252 sec
49. Two waves are y1 0.25 sin 316t, y2 0.25
sin 310t are traveling in same direction. The
number of beats produced per second will be
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c)
(d) 3
50. What is phase difference between two
successive troughs in the transverse wave?
(a)
(b) 
(c)
(d) 2
6 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
51. A body is allowed to slide on a frictional
less track from rest under-gravity. The track
ends in a circular loop of diameter D. What
should be the minimum height of the body in
terms of D, so that it may successfully
complete the loop?
(a) D
(b) D
(c) D
(d) 2D
52. A body is moving along a circular path with
variable speed. It has
(a) a radial acceleration
(b) a tangential acceleration
(c) zero acceleration
(d) both tangential and radial accelerations
53. A body is traveling in a circle at constant
speed. It
(a) has constant velocity.
(b) has no acceleration
(c) has an inward acceleration
(d) has an outward radial acceleration
54. A body of mass 100 gram, tied at the end
of a string of length 3 m rotates in a vertical
circle and is just able to complete the circle. If
the tension in the string at its lowest point is
3.7 N, then its angular velocity will be ______
(g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 4 rad/s
(b) 3 rad/s
(c) 2 rad/s
(d) 1 rad/s
55. A body of mass 500 gram is rotating in a
vertical circle of radius 1 m. What is the
difference in its kinetic energies at the top and
the bottom of the circle?
(a) 4.9 J
(b) 19.8 J
(c) 2.8 J
(d) 9.8 J
56. A body of mass m is suspended from a
string of length l. What is the minimum
horizontal velocity that should be given to the
body in its lowest position so that it may
complete full revolution in the vertical plane
with the point of suspension at the center of
circle?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
57. A body of mass m performing UCM with
frequency n along the circumference of circle
having radius r, force is given by
(a) 4nm2
(b) 42n2m
(c) 2n2mr
(d) nm2
58. A bucket containing water is tied to one
end of a rope of length 2.5 m and rotated
about the other end in a vertical circle. What
should be the minimum velocity of the bucket
at the highest point, so that the water in the
bucket will not spill? (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 2.5 m/s
(b) 4 m/s
(c) 5 m/s
(d) 7 m/s
59. A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long
string is whirled in a vertical circle with a
constant speed. What should be the minimum
speed so that the water from the bucket does
not spill when the bucket is at the highest
position?
(a) 4 m/sec.
(b) 6.25 m/sec.
(c) 16 m/sec.
(d) None of these
60. A can filled with water is revolved in a
vertical circle of radius 4 metre and the water
does not fall down. The time period of
revolution will be
(a) 1 sec
(b) 10 sec
(c) 8 sec
(d) 4 sec
61. A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz.
Produces 10 beats per second when sounded
with a vibrating sonometer string. What must
have been the frequency of the string if a
slight increase in tension produces fewer
beats per seconds then before?
(a) 460 Hz
(b) 470 Hz
(c) 480 Hz
(d) 490 Hz
7 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
62. A whistle giving out 450 Hz approaches a
stationery observer at a speed of 33 m/s. the
frequency heard by the observer in Hz is
(velocity of sound 330 m/s)
(a) 409
(b) 429
(c) 517
(d) 500
63. When a source is going away from a
stationary observer, with a velocity equal to
that of sound in air, then the frequency heard
by the observer will be
(a) Same
(b) Half
(c) Double
(d) One third
64. A wave travels in a medium according to
the equation of displacement given by y(x,t) 
0.03 sin (2t −0.01x), where y and x are in
meters and ‘t’ is seconds. The wavelength of
the wave is
(a) 200 m
(b) 100 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 10 m
65. Ten tuning fork are arranged in increasing
order of frequency in such a way that any two
nearest tuning forks produce 4 beats per
second. The highest frequency is twice that of
the lowest. Possible highest and lowest
frequencies are
(a) 80 & 40
(b) 100 & 50
(c) 44 & 22
(d) 72 & 36
66. The equation of a wave is given by y 10
sin (0.01 x −2t) where y and x are in cm and
t is in sec. its frequency is
(a) 10 sec−1
(b) 2 sec−1
(c) 1 sec−1
(d) 0.01 sec−1
67. Velocity of sound in air is
(a) 300 m/s
(b) 3.8 1010 m/s
(c) 3 108 m/s
(d) 9 1019 m/s
68. If the pressure amplitude in a sound wave
is tripled. Then by what factor the intensity of
the sound wave increased
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d)
69. A tuning fork X produces 4 beats/sec with
a tuning fork Y of frequency 384 Hz. When the
prongs of X are slightly filed, 3 beats/sec are
heard. What is the original frequency of X?
(a) 388 Hz
(b) 381 Hz
(c) 380 Hz
(d) 387 Hz
70. Which of the following phenomenon
cannot take place with sound wave?
(a) Reflection
(b) Interference
(c) Diffraction
(d) Polarization

CMJU Exam papers 2013: contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

1 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
Question Booklet Code: C Duration: 2 Hours
Course: Diploma in Engineering in Architecture Assistantship Year: First Year
Paper Code: 702106 Paper Name: Engineering Mathematics
ATTEMPT ALL THE BELOW MENTIONED QUESTIONS:
1. What is the primary difference between
using anti-differentiation when finding a
definite versus an indefinite integral?
a) Indefinite integrals don't have defined
limits.
b) Definite integrals have defined limits.
c) The constant of integration, C.
d) There is no difference between definite and
indefinite integrals.
2. If θ approaches zero, then limit of
sin(θ)/θ is _____.
a) cos(θ)
b) 0
c) 1
d) This is indeterminate.
3. Let's say that f ''(k) = 0 @ (13, -2).
What does this mean?
a) There is definitely an inflection point at
that location.
b) There might be an inflection point at that
location.
c) There definitely is not an inflection point at
that location.
d) There's no way to tell without first knowing
what the specific function is.
4. What is the one thing done in antidifferentiation
that has no counterpart in
differentiation?
a) Adding a constant C.
b) Subtracting a constant C.
c) Dividing the new exponent by a constant C.
d) Nothing, they are equally matched step by
step.
5. What is a necessary condition for
L'Hopital's Rule to work?
a) The function must be determinate.
b) The function must be indeterminate.
c) The function must be inconsistent.
d) The function must possess at least three
non-zero derivatives.
6. What does du equal in ∫2x(x2 + 1)5 dx?
a) 2x
b) 2u du
c) 2x dx
d) 5u4
7. What is the second step of performing
anti-differentiation?
a) Divide the coefficient by the old
exponential value.
b) Subtract the new exponential value from
the coefficient.
c) Multiply the coefficient by the new
exponential value.
d) Divide the coefficient by the new
exponential value.
8. Which of the following is the best
integration technique to use for ∫2x(x2 +
1)5 dx?
a) The product rule.
b) The chain rule.
c) The power rule.
d) The substitution rule.
9. ∫1/x dx =
a) Undefined because you cannot divide by
zero.
b) loge(x)
c) ln(x)
d) ln(x) + C
10. What is the converted substitution
form of ∫12x2 (x3 + 1)5 dx?
a) 4∫u5 du
b) ∫u5 du
c) ¼ ∫u5 du
d) This cannot be solved by the substitution
method.
CMJ UNIVERSITY, SHILLONG
TERM END EXAMINATION - 2013
2 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
11. A= [aij]m×n is a square matrix if
a) m < n
b) m > n
c) m = n
d) None of these
12. If A is a matrix of order 4 × 3 then
each row of matrix A contains
a) 12 elements
b) 4 elements
c) 3 elements
d) None of these
13. The number of all possible matrices of
order 2×3 with each entry 0 or1 is
a) 64
b) 12
c) 36
d) None of these
14. The given matrix A = __ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ __ is
a) Scalar
b) Diagonal Matrix
c) Unit Matrix
d) Square Matrix
15. If ___+     _ __− __ = _     −__      _+_ _ then the
values of x and y are
a) x=3,y=1
b) x=2,y=3
c) x=2,y=4
d) x=3,y=3
16. If A is of order m×n and B is of order
p×q then AB is defined only if
a) m = q
b) m = p
c) n = p
d) n = q
17. A matrix has 24 elements then the
possible orders it can have
a) 8
b) 6
c) 4
d) 2
18. If x ____ + y _−_ _ _ = ___ _ _ then the values
of x & y are
a) 3, 4
b) 3, -4
c) -3, -4
d) None of these
19. Two matrices A & B which have the
same order, are said to be
a) Equal
b) Comparable
c) Conformable for product AB
d) None of these
20. The matrix in which number of rows is
equal to number of columns is called
a) Square Matrix
b) Rectangular matrix
c) Diagonal Matrix
d) None of these
21. Let A be a 5×7 matrix then each
column of A contains
a) 7 elements
b) 5 elements
c) 35 elements
d) None of these
22. If λ С R, then λI2 is the Matrix
a)__ _ 0 0_
b)__ _ _ __
c)_0 _ _ 0_
d)__ 0 0 __
23. Matrices A & B inverse of each other
only if
a) AB = BA
b) AB – BA = 1
c) AB = O, BA = I
d) AB = BA = I
24. If A = _____ −____ ____ ____ _ then A + A’ = I
then value of _ is
a) _/6
b) _/3
c) _
d) 3_/2
25. If A =!_ _ _", B = ___ _ then AB
a) !2 8 3"
b) _283
_
c) !1 3"
d) None of these
3 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
26. Given that . Select the correct
form for the differential from the list
below:
a)
b)
c)
d)
27. Differentiate the following equation
using the standard rules:
a)
b)
c)
d)
28. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
29. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
30. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
31. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
32. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
4 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
33. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
34. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
35. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
36. If f(x) = 3x2, then F(x) =
a) 6x
b) x3
c) x3 + C
d) 6x + C
37. The two types of errors that are
related to differentials are:
a) Human, Absolute.
b) Absolute, Relative.
c) Relative, Controllable.
d) Controllable, Natural.
38. Mathematically, what is a differential?
a) A method of directly relating how changes
in a dependent variable affect changes in an
independent variable.
b) A word used to relate differences in a
mathematical value with variable values.
c) A method of directly relating how changes
in an independent variable affect changes in a
dependent variable.
d) None of the Above
39. The 2nd derivative of a function at
point P is 0, and concavity is positive for
values to the right of P. What must the
concavity be to the left of P for P to be an
inflection point?
a) The concavity must also be positive.
b) The concavity must be negative.
c) The concavity must be neutral (0).
d) The concavity must be imaginary.
40. At what value of q is the concavity of
w(q) = -2, if w(q) = q4 - 16?
a) At q = fourth root of 14.
b) At q = 0.
c) Never; w(q) is always concave down.
d) Never; w(q) is always concave up.
41. What is needed to fully determine an
anti-differentiated function?
a) A lot of luck.
b) A boundary condition.
c) What its value is at (0, 0).
d) Its real world application.
42. It has been determined that g(p) has
a maximum at p = -47.6. What can be
said of the function's concavity at that
point?
a) g ''(p) = 0
b) g ''(p) &gt; 0
c) g ''(p) &lt; 0
d) There's no way to tell without first knowing
what the specific function is.
43. What are the values of C0 and C1 in
d(t) = C1 + C0t - 16t2, if d(1) = 4 and v(2)
= -65?
a) C0 = -1, C1 = 21
b) C0 = 1, C1 = -21
c) C0 = -1, C1 = 19
d) C0 = 0, C1 = 1
5 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
44. G(d) was determined to be 3d + C;
here, C is called:
a) the constant of differentiation.
b) the constant of anti-differentiation.
c) the constant of integration.
d) the constant of death and taxes.
45. Does f(c) = (c + 2)3 - 2 have an
inflection point? If so, where is it located?
a) Yes, at (-2, -2)
b) Yes, at (2, -2)
c) Yes, at (8, -2)
d) No
46. If which of
the following is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
47. If A and B are n × n matrices, which of
the following does not equal (A + B)2 ?
a) A2 + 2AB + B2
b) (A + B)A + (A + B)B
c) A2 + AB + BA + B2
d) (B + A)2
48. If A, B, and C are n × n matrices,
which of the following equalities is
invalid? Note: D′ is the transpose of D.
a) (ABC)′ = C′B′A′
b) (A + A + 2B)′ = 2B′ + 2A′
c) (A + A)′ = 2A′
d) ((AB)2)′ = (B′)2(A′)2
49. The n × n matrix P is idempotent
if P2 = P and orthogonal if P′P = I. Which
of the following is false?
a)If P and Q are orthogonal n × n matrices,
then PQ is orthogonal
b)If P and Q are idempotent n × n matrices
and PQ = QP = O, then P + Q is idempotent
c) is orthogonal
d)If P is idempotent, then −P is idempotent
50. Which of the following statements is
correct?
a) Suppose A is n × n, x is n × 1, and Ax = 0
has only the trivial solution. Then Ax = b has
solutions for any n × 1 vector b
b) It is possible to construct a linear system
with exactly 5 different solutions
c) A linear system with more equations than
unknowns cannot have solutions
d) A linear system can only have an infinite
number of solutions if there are more variables
than equations
51. For which values of t does the
following linear equation system have
infinitely many solutions?
a) t = 2
b) t = 2 and t = −3
c) The system does not have infinitely many
solutions for any value of t
d) t = −3
52. Using Gaussian elimination, the
solutions of can be
deduced from the augmented matrix
. For which values
of a, b, and c are there infinitely many
solutions?
a) If c = 1
b) Never
c) If a = b and c = 1
d) If a ≠ b
53. If a = (3, 4, 0) and b = (0, 2, −3),
then is equal to:
a) 3
b) 0
c) −3
d) 2
54. The straight line in through the
point (−1, 3, 3) pointing in the direction
of the vector (1, 2, 3) hits the x1x2-plane
at the point
a) Never
b) (−2, 1, 0)
c) (1, 3, 0)
d) (2, −1, 0)
55. The plane in through the point (−1,
3, 3), which is orthogonal to the vector
(1, 2, 3), has the equation
a) x − 2y − 3z = −16
b) x + 2y + 3z = 11
c) −x + 3y + 3z = 14
d) x + 2y + 3z = 14
6 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
56. Differentiate the right-hand side of
the following statements to decide which
statement is false.
a)
b)
c)
d)
57. is equal to
a) 21
b) −5/8
c) 15
d) 65/3
58. is equal to
a) 3/8
b) ln 8
c)
d) −3/8
59. Which formula is incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)
60. is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
61. What is the area bounded by the
graph of y = 8 − x2 and y = x2?
a) 32/3
b) 0
c) −64/3
d) 64/3
62. with p ≠ 1, is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
63. is equal to
a) 2
b) 18
c) Does not exist
d) −36/27
64. If for all t and x(2) = 1,
then
a) x(t) = 2 − e−t+2
b)
c) x(t) = e−t
d) x(t) = e2−t
65. for all t > 0 with x(1) =
2 has the solution
a) x(t) = t2 + t
b) x(t) = t + 1
c)
d) x(t) = 2et−1
66. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
7 | P a g e Centre for Collaboration of Industry and Institutions (CCII) – www.cmju.in
67. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
68. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)
69. Differentiate the following equation:
, where c and d are
constants.
a)
b)
c)
d)
70. Differentiate the following equation:
a)
b)
c)
d)