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Examination Paper – ISO 14001:2004
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IIBM Institute of Business Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper MM.100
ISO: 14001:2004
Guidelines for paper
Total No. of Questions is 100.
The minimum passing marks is 50%.
Each Question carries 1 mark.
Answer all the Questions.
Multiple Choices: Total Marks: 100
1. The ISO 14001 EMS standard only specifies
a) The structure of EMS
b) The working of EMS
c) The behavior of EMS
d) None
2. Which clause addresses the general requirements of an Environment Management System?
a) Clause 4.1
b) Clause 4.2
c) Clause 4.3
d) Clause 4.5
3. The ISO 14001 structure, like classic quality management systems, is based on
a) Plan – Check – Do – Act cycle
b) Check – Plan – Do – Act cycle
c) Do – Plan – Check – Act cycle
d) Plan – Do – Check – Act cycle
4. An environmental system
a) Serves as a tool to improve environmental performance
b) Provides a systematic way of managing an organization’s environmental affairs
c) Focuses on continual improvement of the system
d) All above
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5. Clause 4.5 of ISO 14001:2004 - …………………… corresponds to the check stage of the PDCA
cycle.
a) Planning
b) Checking
c) Verifying
d) None
6. A process of enhancing the environmental management system to achieve improvement is overall
environmental performance in line with the organization’s environmental policy is called
a) Environment
b) Continual Improvement
c) Prevention of Pollution
d) Environmental Aspect
7. Which clause states that, ‘the organization shall define and document the scope of its
environmental management system’?
a) Clause 4.5
b) Clause 4.3
c) Clause 4.1
d) Clause 4.2
8. Top managers demonstrate their commitment by articulating the …………………… values.
a) Written values
b) Environmental values
c) Physical values
d) Numeric values
9. Regarding ‘Prevention of Pollution’ the ISO 14001 : 2004 definition incorporates the concept of
a) End – of – pipe
b) End – of process
c) Reduce creation of pollutants
d) Eliminate waste at source
10. The environment policy is a statement of intension. It must be
a) Documented
b) Implemented
c) Maintained
d) All above
11. Planning is covered by
a) Clause 4.1
b) Clause 4.2
c) Clause 4.4
d) Clause 4.3
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12. Environmental aspects must be identified only for those activities products, and services that fall
within the …………………… .
a) Undefined scope
b) Defined scope
c) Any scope
d) Predefined procedure
13. The most typical approach to identification of environmental aspects involves
a) Examination of individual process
b) Investigate the complete process
c) Audition of environmental policy
d) None
14. Environmental impacts can be
a) Acute
b) Chronic
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
15. Which clause of ISO 14001:2004 states that, ‘within the defined scope of its environmental
management system, the environmental policy is available to the public’?
a) Clause 4.2
b) Clause 4.2.5
c) Clause 4.3.1
d) Clause 4.5
16. If an organization’s environmental management system is to be effective, it must eliminate
a) Beneficial environmental effects
b) Wholly environmental effects
c) Partially environmental effects
d) Adverse environmental effects
17. Environmental Impact states that
a) Any change to the process
b) Effect of the climate
c) Any change to the environment
d) Change the overall management system
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18. Clause, which focuses on activities intended to improve the environmental management system,
is
a) Clause 4.4.4
b) Clause 4.5
c) Clause 4.6
d) Clause 4.3
19. The environmental policy statement contains language that only commits to compliance with
a) Legal requirements
b) Other requirements
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
20. Who is the responsible for identifying and documenting the legal & other requirements that apply
to the unit’s environmental respects & operations?
a) ISO 14001 coordinator
b) Environmental manager
c) DNC staff
d) All above
21. The legal & other requirements that may be applicable to a unit’s environmental aspects may
include
a) National & International legal requirements
b) Local governmental legal requirements
c) ISO 14001 : 2004
d) All above
22. Clause, which mandates periodic evaluation to see whether an organization is in compliance with
all identified legal requirements, is
a) Clause 4.5.6
b) Clause 4.5.2
c) Clause 4.3.2
d) Clause 4.1
23. The framework for setting and receiving environmental objectives & targets is provided by
a) Environmental Management System
b) Environmental Manager
c) ISO 14001 :2004
d) Environmental Policy
24. Example of objectives that reflect the policy to conserve “natural resources” are
a) Reduce water use
b) Reduce energy use
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
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25. Environmental targets describe ……………….. will be to achieve stated objectives.
a) What
b) How much
c) Why
d) When
26. If there is a technology that could reduce a significant impact by 50%, but the organization
discovers that the purchasing price is equal to its entire operating budget. Then which factor
should conclude by the organization that precludes it from purchasing the technology?
a) Financial requirements
b) Legal requirements
c) Technological options
d) Operational requirements
27. In ISO 14001:2004, significant environmental aspects or impacts are the focus of
a) 4.2a clause
b) 4.3.2 clause
c) 4.4.2 clause
d) All above
28. An organization must establish objectives & targets related to
a) Regulatory compliance
b) Continual improvement
c) Compliance with other voluntary required
d) All above
29. A component, which must be determined by the organization in which specific objectives &
targets are to be achieved, is
a) Policy
b) System
c) Time frame
d) Management
30. The single most critical resource, at various levels with an organization is
a) Lack of money
b) Availability of employees
c) Bad goodwill
d) Labor
31. Within the context of an environmental management system, authority pertains to
a) Influence
b) Power
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
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32. The environmental policy statement contains language that commits to compliance with legal &
other requirements. This commitment is supported by
a) Clause 4.3.1
b) Clause 4.3.2
c) Clause 4.3.5
d) Clause 4.4.1
33. Nonconformity as “non – fulfillment of a requirement” is defined in
a) Section 3.17
b) Section 3.16
c) Section 3.15
d) Section 2.17
34. In ISO 14001:2004 clause 4.6 is related to
a) Internal audit
b) Monitoring & measurement
c) Evaluation of compliance
d) Management review
35. In any evaluation of worker competence, who may include
a) Temporary workers
b) Contractors
c) Other working on behalf of an organization
d) All above
36. Training needs must be identified for workers who are required to hold a
a) Worker label
b) Award
c) License
d) Any credential
37. Under which section an interested party is defined as a, “person or group concerned with or
affected by the environmental performance of an organization”?
a) Section 2.11
b) Section 4.12
c) Section 3.13
d) Section 1.11
38. ISO Awareness Training is recorded through various means & it is verified by
a) EMS Internal audits
b) Operational Control
c) Control of Records
d) ISO 14001 Coordinator
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39. Which clause confirmed an environmental management system audit is neither an environmental
performance audit not a regulatory compliance audit?
a) Clause 4.5.1
b) Clause 4.5.2
c) Clause 4.5.3
d) Both (a) & (b)
40. Sharing of information and exchange of ideas among all organizational functions and levels, is
referred to as
a) Transaction
b) Communication
c) Deal
d) Transmission
41. With regard to its environmental aspects and environmental management system, the organization
shall establish & maintain …………………………… between the various levels & function of
the organization.
a) External communication
b) Internal communication
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
42. Clause, which states that responsibility must be defined, documented, & communicated, is
a) Clause 4.4.1
b) Clause 4.2.3
c) Clause 4.1.4
d) Clause 4.3.2
43. If an organization provides written information to its all employees, then it is
a) Communicating
b) Conferencing
c) Advertizing
d) Distribution of information
44. ISO 14001: 2004 uses the terms ‘levels’ and ‘function’. What does the ‘function’ word mean?
a) A group of members
b) A program organized at the last of the year
c) A group of related actions that contribute to a larger accomplishment
d) A position of rank
45. The example of external party for an organization could be
a) Regulatory agencies
b) Community residents
c) Civic associations
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d) All above
46. The environmental management system documentation shall include
a) The environmental policy
b) Objectives
c) Targets
d) All above
47. To establish effective procedure, it is necessary to understand what is meant by the term
communication, which is defined in
a) Clause 4.3.4
b) Clause 4.4.3
c) Clause 4.1.4
d) Clause 4.3.2
48. An umbrella document, often in the form of manual, that provides an overview of the EMS &
described how each element of ISO 14001 : 2004 is being achieved
a) System description
b) Procedure
c) Work instructions
d) Records
49. Work instructions provide
a) Detailed information for group
b) Information of EMS
c) Relevant data
d) Detailed information for individuals
50. A document explains
a) What must be done
b) Format of the work
c) How should it be done
d) When it should it be done
51. ISO 14001 :2004 states all documents required by the standard must be controlled which include
a) Environmental policy
b) Roles, responsibilities & authorities
c) Operational control procedures
d) All above
52. Documents, those created by others brought into an organization for some purpose, are subject to
somewhat different controls, are
a) Internal documents
b) External documents
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c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
53. Section, which defines a document as “information and its supporting medium,” is
a) Section 3.11
b) Section 2.10
c) Section 3.5
d) Section 3.4
54. Documents, which always reflect the current version because there is only on “location” (in
computer) at which documents are available and are increasingly used by organization, are
a) Internal documents
b) External documents
c) Electronic documents
d) All above
55. A document, that is current at time of issuance and will be updated as revisions are made, is
called
a) Master lists
b) Controlled copy
c) Uncontrolled copy
d) Validation form
56. If the copies of EMS are downloaded, printed, and/or saved electronically, but they are
considered
a) Uncontrolled
b) Controlled
c) Current
d) None
57. The approaches selected by an organization to control its operations should reflect
a) The nature of the aspect of the interest
b) The media affected by its interest
c) The purpose of the control
d) All above
58. The operations of an organization is affected by its
a) Employees
b) Suppliers
c) Contractors
d) All above
59. Creating a new procedure , an organization can use its existing communication procedure to
fulfill the requirements, imposed by
a) Clause 4.5
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b) Clause 4.3.2
c) Clause 4.4.3
d) Clause 4.1.4
60. When universal waste & recyclable material is collected, stored, it has managed for disposal /
recycle, at
a) Dustbin
b) Recycling center
c) Organization
d) Anywhere
61. Evaluation of environmental impacts should consider
a) Accidental emission to the air
b) Accidental discharges to the water
c) Accidental discharges to the land
d) All above
62. A database, which includes information used to determine the root cause of the incident &
specifies corrective / preventive actions to prevent recurrence of the incident, is
a) Environmental Management System
b) Environmental Incident Reporting System
c) Integrated Contingency System
d) None
63. Clause 4.4.7 is related to
a) Emergency preparedness & response
b) Monitoring & measuring
c) Operational control
d) Control of documents
64. Regarding environmental incidents and emergency, all employees are trained to report
environmental incidents & emergency situations to
a) The Environmental Manager
b) Technical Service Manager
c) Contractor
d) Load Dispatcher
65. An organization, for every significant environmental impact must decide
a) What to measure
b) How to measure
c) When to measure
d) All above
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66. Which scales of measurement are used to identify categories of objects or events?
a) Nominal scales
b) Ordinal scales
c) Interval scales
d) Ratio scales
67. If adverse environmental impacts is labeled as “high – medium – low” as rated “3 – 2 – 1”, then
which scale would be useful to assign values represents things that are better or worse in
comparison others?
a) Nominal scales
b) Ordinal scales
c) Interval scales
d) Ratio scales
68. Whatever type of measure is selected, that must be
a) Reliable
b) Valid
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
69. Documents that the organization feels are necessary to ensure effective operation & control of
process related to its significant environmental aspects, are required by
a) Clause 4.1.1
b) Clause 4.2.2
c) Clause 4.3.3
d) Clause 4.4.4
70. Data, which inform an organization whether procedure are being followed & whether they are
effective in managing environmental aspects & controlling related environmental impacts.
a) Data obtained form ICP
b) Data obtained from EMS
c) Data obtained through the measurement techniques
d) Data obtained through the measurement & monitoring techniques
71. For ISO 14001 registration, an organization must provide evidence of
a) A procedure for evaluating legal compliance
b) Compliance review by management
c) Corrective action for any noncompliance
d) All above
72. If the organization’s ……………………………… has not identified the noncompliance, the
registrar audit team will ascertain whether the organization had identified & has access to its legal
& other requirements.
a) Internal audits
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b) External audit
c) Registration audit
d) None
73. Who will first attempt to determine whether the audited organization’s internal audit team
identified the same noncompliance?
a) Audit team
b) Manager
c) Registrar Audit Team
d) Auditor
74. If organization has identified the requirement with which its fails to comply, the registrar audit
team will question, that
a) Why evaluation of compliance did not reveal this efficiency
b) Why evaluation of compliance is not suitable
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
75. Clause, which says that, ‘the organization shall keep records of the results of the periodic
evaluation, is
a) Clause 4.5.2.1
b) Clause 4.5.2.2
c) Clause 4.4.2
d) Clause 4.4.3
76. Who is responsible for the scheduling & completion of quarterly audits of objectives & targets &
periodic audits of selective environmental compliance issues?
a) Technical Services Manager
b) Satellite point Manager
c) EMS Manager
d) ISO 14001 Coordinator
77. Preventive action is defined as
a) Action to eliminate the causing of a potential nonconformity
b) Action to eliminate the cause of a potential conformity
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
78. Identification of nonconformities tends to be considered in conjunction with
a) Environmental Management System
b) EMS Audits
c) List of nonconformities
d) None
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79. An organization must take action to mitigate environmental harm that already resulted from the
a) Conformity
b) Mistake
c) Nonconformity
d) Process
80. When corrective or preventive action is taken, the …………………….. will review the action at
an appropriate time to determine the results of the action.
a) Technical Services Manager
b) ISO 14001 Coordinator
c) Suppliers
d) Environmental Manager/ Designee
81. Prevention action defined as “action to eliminate the cause of a potential nonconformity” in
section
a) Section 3.17
b) Section 3.15
c) Section 3.3
d) None
82. ……………………. provide information that confirms the occurrence of activities or verifies
performance relative to a fixed or recommended standard.
a) Data
b) Files
c) Records
d) Diaries
83. The ISO 14001 :2004 states explicitly that records must be kept
a) Compliance, training & awareness
b) Monitoring & measurement
c) Internal audit
d) All above
84. Internal audit is defined in
a) Clause 4.3.1
b) Clause 4.5.5
c) Clause 4.4.1
d) Clause 4.4.3
85. Records should be in ink, rather than pencil, to prevent
a) Smudging
b) Darkness
c) Readability
d) Legibility
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86. The linkage between an activity and an associated record should be clear, this feature of record is
known as
a) Identifiable
b) Legible
c) Traceable
d) All above
87. Which section defines an auditor is a “person with the competence to conduct an audit”?
a) Section 3.14
b) Section 3.17
c) Section 3.1
d) Section 3.4
88. Any record, electronic or hard copy, identified on the environmental records retention schedule
that demonstrates conformance with EMS & legal & other requirements, is known as
a) Environmental record
b) Environmental aspect
c) Information
d) Document
89. The ……………….. is used to determine if it is time to destroy an environmental record.
a) EMS List
b) Employee’s Detail List
c) Records Retention List
d) None
90. An environmental management system audit is
a) Environmental performance audit
b) Regulatory Compliance Audit
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
91. An EMS audit verifies that appropriate procedures are in place & functioning to ensure
conformity with
a) ISO 14001 : 2004
b) An organization’s document
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
92. The internal audit procedure must address
a) Responsibilities
b) Audit Criteria
c) Frequency
d) All above
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93. Smaller organizations may be unable to delicate the resources required for a sufficient no. of
auditors. In such a circumstance, an organization might borrow auditors from
a) Corporate headquarters
b) Consortia
c) Consulting firms
d) Sister facilities
94. Information that is verifiable & is based on facts obtained through observation measurement,
testing, or other means, is
a) Nonconformance
b) Conformance
c) Objective evidence
d) None
95. Input to management review shall include
a) Results of internal audits
b) Communication(s) from external interested parties, including complaints
c) Status of corrective & preventive actions
d) All above
96. Management review should be viewed as
a) Strategic
b) Potential
c) Tactical in Nature
d) None
97. Decision – makers, who contribute to the management review process & provide the authority &
resources to address recommended improvements, are
a) Managers
b) Employees
c) Contractors
d) Executives
98. The reason given by SMEs for implementing ISO 14001 is
a) Customer requirements
b) Continuous improvement or environmental performance
c) Improved regulatory compliance
d) All above
99. The small organization, those with one to five employees, sometimes referred to as
a) Medium enterprises
b) Micro enterprises
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c) Mini enterprises
d) Super enterprises
100. Continual improvement as a “recurring process of enhancing the environmental management
system in order to achieve improvements in overall environmental performance consistent with
the organization’s environment policy”, is defined by
a) Section 3.1
b) Section 3.14
c) Section 3.17
d) Section 3.2

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CERTIFIED SIX SIGMA GREEN BELT
EXAMINATION PAPER
Guideline for paper
Total No. of Question is 100.
The minimum passing marks is 40%
Each question carries 1 mark.
Answer all the questions.
Total: 100 Marks
1. The Following is a sample data set.
10 8 8 6 5
What is the variance of this data set?
a. 3.0
b. 3.8
c. 7.3
d. 7.4
2. An auditor should use a histogram in a quality audit to do which of the following?
a. Provide objective evidence that the audited uses statistical process control (SPC)
b. Expose patterns that are normally difficult to detect
c. Interpret data for a trend chart
d. create a stratified tally diagram
3. Comparing how a process is actually performed against the documented work instruction for that
process is an example of which of the following techniques?
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. Statistical
d. Random sampling
4. Attribute sampling should be used when
a. The data are measurements in metric units.
b. Ayes-or-no decision is to be made.
c. The population has variability.
d. A multi-stage sampling plan is needed.
5. Scatter diagrams are best described as
a. Histograms.
b. Correlation analysis.
c. Pareto analysis.
d. Ishikawa diagrams.
6. If data are plotted over time, the resulting chart will be a
a. Run chart
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b. Histogram
c. Pareto chart
d. Poisson distribution
7. To determine who are or might be customers for a specific process, it would be most useful to create a
a. Pareto chart
b. Flow diagram
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Scatter diagram
8. A production line uses signs at specific points on the line to indicate when components or raw materials
need to be replenished. The practice is an example of
a. Kanban
b. Poka-yake
c. Checkpoints
d. Hoshin
9. Which of the following is a good tool for planning cycle time reduction and concurrent operations?
a. A timeline
b. A Pareto diagram
c. An X and R chart
d. A PERT chart
10. Attribute and variable data are best described as which of the following? Attribute variable
a. Counted values measured values
b. Counted values visual features
c. Measured values counted values
d. Visual features counted values
11. All of the following are common ways for people to react to conflict EXCEPT
a. Competing
b. Collaborating
c. Avoiding
d. Sabotaging
12. A quality manager has chosen to survey customer satisfaction by talking samples based on the
categories of frequency of use, categories of use, and demographic. This technique is known as
a. Random sampling
b. Data collection
c. Stratification
d. Customer classification
13. Which of the following actions is Not used to reduce process cycle time?
a. Analyzing current processes
b. Reducing queue times
c. Setting priorities
d. Implementing activity-based costing
14. A company’s accounts payable department is trying to reduce the time between receipt and payment
of invoices and has recently completed a flowchart. Which of the following tools would be the for them to
use next?
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a. Fishbone diagram
b. Scatter diagram
c. Box and whisker plat
d. Histogram
15. In a manufacturing company, the machine shop is what kind of customer in relation to the human
resource department?
a. Intermediate
b. Hidden
c. External
d. Internal
16. The primary purpose of a project charter is to
a. Subdivide the project into smaller, more manageable components
b. Provide management with a tool for selecting a project that addresses business needs
c. Provide management with a tool to ensure that project deadlines are met
d. Provide the project manager with authority to apply organizational resources to project activities
17. Sample selection of parts for inspection must be selected at random to ensure
a. A minimum sample size.
b. The probability of not rejecting the lot
c. The probability of accepting the lot
d. Finding typical characteristics of the lot.
18. Which of the following are bases for establishing calibration intervals?
I. Stability
II.Purpose
III.Degree of usage
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and III
19. Specification limits are derived from which of the following?
a. Process capability studies
b. Process control charts
c. Customer requirements
d. Historical data
20. The primary purpose of a control chart is to
a. Set Specifications and tolerances
b. compare operations.
c. Determine the stability of a process.
d. Accept or reject a lot of material
21. When a control chart is used on a new process, capability can be assessed at which of the following
times?
a. Before the chart is first started
b. After the first ten points are plotted
c. When the plotted points hug the centerline
d. After the process is shown to be in control
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22. Precision is best described as
a. A comparison to a known standard
b. The achievement of expected outgoing quality
c. The repeated consistency of results
d. The difference between an average measurement and the actual value
23. The overall ability of two or more operators to obtain Consistent results repeatedly when measuring
the same set of parts and using the same measuring equipment is the definition of
a. Repeatability
b. Precision
c. Reproducibility
d. Accuracy
24. Which of the following conditions must be met for a process to be in a state of statistical control?
a. Most of the product out by the process is in specification.
b. All subgroup averages and rang are within control limits.
c. All variation has been completely removed
d. Previously optimal process settings are used.
25. Which of the following measures of dispersion is equal to the sum of deviations from the mean
squared divided by the sample size?
a. Range
b. Standard deviation
c. Variance
d. Mode
26. An X and R chart is used to
a. Indicate process variation
b. Specify design Limits
c. Interpret costs
d. Identify customer expectations
27. Which of the following is the most useful graphical tool for promoting an understanding of process
capability?
a. A flowchart
b. a histogram
c. An affinity diagram
d. An Ishikawa diagram
28. The type of chart that presents the value of items in descending order is a
a. Histogram
b. Pareto chart
c. U chart
d. Cusum chart
29. Measures of which of the following provide attributes data?
a. Temperature in degrees
b. Attendance at meetings
c. Weight in pounds
d. Length in metric units
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30. The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following types of control chart?
a. P chart
b. U chart
c. Np chart
d. C chart
31. A cause and effect diagram is a useful tool for doing which of the following?
a. Determining the flow of a process
b. Detecting shifts in a process
c. Developing theories based on symptoms
d. Arranging theories by defect count
32. Which of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a sample of data?
a. Mode
b. Mean
c. Standard deviation
d. Range
33. Which of the following types of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?
a. Histogram
b. Frequency distributions
c. Pareto chart
d. Process observations
34. Which of the following techniques is most useful in narrowing issues and limiting discussion?
a. Brainstorming
b. Quality function deployment
c. Cause and effect analysis
d. Mutilating
35. In statistics, an estimation error that is persistent or systematic is called
a. Bias
b. Sensitivity
c. Random
d. Shift
36. A customer satisfaction survey used the following rating scale:
1= very satisfied
2= Satisfied
3= Neutral
4= dissatisfied
5= very dissatisfied
This is an example of which of the following measurement scales?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Ratio
d. Interval
37. Which of the following techniques is used in identifying underlying problems?
a. Cause and effect analysis
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b. Prioritization matrix
c. Force field analysis
d. Pareto analysis
38. For a normal distribution, two standard deviation on each side of the mean would include what
percentage of the total population
a. 47%
b. 68%
c. 95%
d. 99%
39. In measurement system analysis, which of the following pairs of data measures is used to determine
total variance?
a. Process variance and reproducibility
b. Noise system and repeatability
c. Measurement variance and process variance
d. System variance and bias
40. Process data being used in the initial set-up of a process are assumed have a normal distribution. If the
nominal (target) is at the center of the distribution, and the specification limits are set at = 3 from the
center the Cpk is equal to
a. -0.25
b. 1.00
c. 1.33
d. 1.67
41. A green belt is going to monitor the number of defects on different size samples. Which of the
following control chart would be most appropriate?
a. u
b. np
c. c
d. p
42. Correction, over-production, inventory, and motion are all examples of
a. waste
b. 5S target areas
c. Noise
d. Value-added activities
43. The primary factor in the successful implementation of six sigma is to have
a. The necessary resources
b. The support/leadership of top management
c. Explicit customer requirements
d. A comprehensive training program
44. Which of the following types of variation is LEAST likely to occur in sequential repetitions of a
process over a short period of time?
a. Cyclical
b. Positional
c. Temporal
d. Seasonal
Examination Paper of Six Sigma Green Belt
IIBM Institute of Business Management 7
45. The primary reason that most companies implement six sigma is to
a. Reduce defects
b. Improve Processes
c. Improve profit
d. Increase customer satisfaction
46. The term used to describe the risk of a type I error in a test of hypotheses is
a. Power
b. Confidence level
c. Level of significance
d. Beta risk
47. One characteristic of attributes data is that it is always
a. continuous
b. Discrete
c. Expensive to collect
d. Read from a scale of measurement
48. Which of the following tests may be used to determine whether a sample comes from a population
with an exponential distribution?
a. T
b. F
c. Chi-square
d. ANOVA
49. Which of the following tools are appropriate for a quality engineer to use in qualifying a process that
has variable data?
I. An and R control chat
II. A his to gram
III. A cc hart
IV. A p chart
a. I and II only
b. II and III only
c. III and IV only
d. I, II, and IV only
50. The correlation coefficient for the length and weight of units made by a process is determined to be
0.27. if the process were adjusted to reduce the weight of each unit by 0.5 ounce, the correlation
coefficient of the length and weight of the units made by the new process would be equal to
a. 0.50
b. 0.27
c. 0.23
d. -0.23
51. A form, in either diagram or table format, that is prepared in advance for recording data is known as a
a. Cause-and-effect diagram
b. Pareto chart
c. Flowchart
d. Check sheet
Examination Paper of Six Sigma Green Belt
IIBM Institute of Business Management 8
52. A major drawback of using histogram in process control is that they
a. do not readily account for the factor of time
b. Are relatively difficult to construct and interpret
c. Require too many data points
d. Require too many intervals
53. Which of the following tools would be of the greatest use for finding the most efficient path and
realistic schedule for the completion of a project?
a. Interrelationship diagram
b. Activity network diagram
c. Tree diagram
d. Affinity diagram
54. A control plan is designed to do which of the following?
a. Supplement information contained in operator instructions
b. Support the production scheduling system
c. Provide a documented system for controlling processes
d. Provide a method for tracking the design review process
55. To determine the average number of nonconforming parts over time, which of the following attribute
control chart would be most appropriate?
a. A chat
b. Np chart
c. P chart
d. U chat
56. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for generating continuous improvement ideas?
a. Tree diagram
b. Brainstorming
c. Prioritization matrix
d. Interrelationship diagraph
57. Which of the following tools is used extensively quality function deployment (QFD)?
a. Affinity diagram
b. Matrix diagram
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Activity network diagram
58. Which of the following tools is most likely to be organizing a list of ideas generated during a
brainstorming session?
a. Activity network diagram
b. Affinity diagram
c. Histogram
d. Process control chart
59. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate for collecting data to study the symptoms of
a problem?
a. A check sheet
b. A flow diagram
c. A force field analysis
d. An activity network diagram
Examination Paper of Six Sigma Green Belt
IIBM Institute of Business Management 9
60. Kaizen is defined as
a. Re-engineering
b. Lean manufacturing
c. Continuous improvement
d. Error –proofing
61. The LEAST informative of the four measurement scales is the
a. Ratio
b. Nominal
c. Ordinal
d. Interval
62. Which of the following can used to determine the goodness of fit of a distribution to a data set?
a. T test
b. ANOVA
c. F rest
d. Chi square test
63. A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What are the expected mean and variance of the number of heads?
Mean variance
a. 0.5 0.025
b. 5.0 2.500
c. 5.0 5.000
d. 10.0 5.000
64. A process capability analysis is NOT used to
a. Determine the ability of a process to meet specifications
b. Maintain a process in a state of statistical control
c. Establish new specifications
d. Prioritize competing processes
65. A type of line graph used to assess the stability of a process is called a
a. Control chart
b. Pareto chart
c. Check sheet
d. cause and effect diagram
66. A process produces nonconformities according to a distribution. If the mean of the nonconformities is
25, what is the standard deviation?
a. 2.5
b. 5.0
c. 12.5
d. 25.0
67. Five six-sided dice are rolled together 100 times. Two histograms are constructed: one for the 500
individual results and one for the 100 averages of five results. In this situation, the individual results
follow a uniform distribution, while the averages follow which of the following distributions?
a. Normal
b. Student’s t
c. Binomial
Examination Paper of Six Sigma Green Belt
IIBM Institute of Business Management 10
d. Uniform
68. A calibrated micrometer was used to take 10 replicated measures of a reference standard. If X
m=0.073, and the true value of the reference standard is 0.075, what is the bias of the micrometer?
a. 0.001
b. 0.002
c. 0.073
d. 0.075
69. The power of a test for the difference between means is measured by
a. A
b. 1-a
c. B
d. 1-b
70. A process is stable and its output is normally distributed. The process has a specification of
16.73=0.01. What is the maximum process standard deviation if the Cp must be=1.5?
a. 0.0011
b.0.0022
c. 0.0041
d. 0.0133
71. Which of the following is the most effective technique for prioritizing critical factors foe problemsolving?
a. Venn diagram
b. Scatter diagram
c. Pareto diagram
d. Cause and effect diagram
72. The main advantage of a matrix diagram is that it
a. Displays all the possible causes related to a problem
b. Displays the strength of relationship between each paired combination of variables
c. Identifies, analyzes, and classifies the cause and effect relationship that among all critical issues
d. Identifies a sequence of actions and materials entering a process
73. Poka-yake is best defined as
a. Improving machine efficiency
b. Reducing field failures to virtually zero
c. Capturing the voice of the customer
d. Preventing controllable defects
74. Which of the following describes the 95% confidence interval of a 20% absentee rate in a department
with 30 people?
a. 6% to 34%
b. 8% to 32%
c. 13% to 27%
d. 17% to 23%
75. Which of the following are needed to calculate the process capability index,Cp?
a. The specification limits and the mean
b. The specification limits and s^ (Sigma Cap)
Examination Paper of Six Sigma Green Belt
IIBM Institute of Business Management 11
c. The process mean and s^(Sigma Cap)
d. The upper and lower specification limits
76. Repeatability and reproducibility are terms that operationally define
a. Bias
b. Accuracy
c. Discrimination
d. Precision’
77. A method that classifies data without significantly reducing accuracy or precision is known as
a. Bias adjustment
b. Statistical efficiency
c. Blocking
d. Coding
78. If a process has a variance of 4 units and a specification of 96+4, what is the process performance
index (Pp)?
a. 0.33
b. 0.66
c. 1.00
d. 1.50
79. If a histogram has a distribution that is bimodal this indicates that the
a. Process is in control
b. Distribution is abnormal
c. Data collected is accurate
d. data has two points
80. Which of the following best describes how an affinity diagram is used?
a. Grasping organizational performance relative to contrasting data
b. Prioritizing data from most signification to least significant
c. Grouping ideas that are created during brainstorming
d. Identifying when a process is in control
81. Warranty claims are classified in which of the following cost of quality groups?
a. Internal failure
b. External failure
c. Appraisal
d. Prevention
82. At what stage of the problem-solving process would a team most likely use a cause-effect diagram?
a. Description of the process associated with the problem
b. Definition of the problem and its scope
c. Organization of possible problem causes
d. Collection of data to identify actual causes
83. Steel bars are cut to cylindrical shafts by means of a lathe. The diameter and allowable tolerance of
the shaft is 2.00=.001 inch. A control chart is used to monitor the quality level of the process. Which of
the following plots on the control chart might indicate a problem of wear on the lathe?
a. The diameter of a single shaft above 2.001 inch
b. the diameter of a single shaft below 1.999 inch
Examination Paper of Six Sigma Green Belt
IIBM Institute of Business Management 12
c. An Apparent increasing trend in the shaft diameters
d. Erratic in-tolerance or out-of-tolerance diameter measurements
84. A sample consists of one or more units of product drawn from a lot or batch on the basis of
a. Defect of the product
b. Random selection
c. Size of the product
d. When the inspection process was completed
85. What is the percent yield for a normally distributed process in which the item length specification is
5.750=0.004, X is 5.752, and the standard deviation is 0.002?
a. 15.73%
b. 19.15%
c. 47.72%
d. 83.99%
86. In preparation for construction of a cause and effect diagram, it is important to
a. Plot separate chart for each source
b. Focus only on what makes thing go wrong
c. Record everything people suggest
d. Validate possible root cause
87. Which of the following tools should be used a team is generating and prioritizing a list of options that
include highly controversial issues?
a. Brainstorming
b. Affinity diagram
c. Nominal group technique
d. 5 whys
88. If a distribution is normal, u=50 s=15, what percentage of data will be less than 30?
a. 59.18%
b. 40.82%
c. 9.18%
d. 1.33%
89. A company is receiving an unusually high number of returns from various customers. The first step in
investigating the problem would be to
a. Check the inspection records
b. Establish the correlation of the returns to shipments
c. Brainstorm the potential causes
d. Classify the returns by type and degree of serious
90. Which of the following is the best definition of a flow chart?
a. A diagram used to structure ideas into useful categories
b. An illustration used to analyze variation in a process
c. A picture used to separate steps of a process in sequential order
d. An analytical tool used to clarify opposing aspects of a desired change
Examination Paper of Six Sigma Green Belt
IIBM Institute of Business Management 13
91. Which of the following activities would NOT contribute to the effective functioning of a team?
a. Eliminating unnecessary activities
b. Development team performance measures
c. Defining process in detail
d. Monitoring each member’s performance
92. What is the standard deviation of the population below?
10, 4, 16, 12, 8
a. 4.00
b. 4.47
c. 16.00
d. 20.00
93. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate for collecting data to study the symptoms of
a problem?
a. Check sheet
b. Flow diagram
c. Force-field analysis
d. Activity network diagram
94. Which of the following measures is a sufficient statistic for the parameter u?
a. Median
b. Mid-range
c. Mean
d. Mode
95. Positional, cyclical, and temporal variations are most commonly analyzed in
a. SPC charts
b. Multi-vari charts
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Run charts
96. Which of the following describes the deming method for continuous improvement?
a. Cost of quality analysis
b. Process map
c. Tree Diagram
d. Plan-do-check-act cycle
97. in analysis of variance, Which of the following distributions is the basis for determining whether the
variance estimates are all from the same population?
a. Chi square
b. Student’s
c. Normal
d. F
98. Which of the following statement best describes the set all value of a random variable?
a. It is finite.
b. It is an interval
c. It can be discrete or continuous.
d. It can be tracked by using control charts or scatter plots.
Examination Paper of Six Sigma Green Belt
IIBM Institute of Business Management 14
99. Which of the following is the best description of randomization?
a. A technique used to increase the precision of an experiment
b. A means of assuring representative sampling
c. The repetition of an observation or measurement
d. The relationship between two or more variables
100. When the order of items is not important, which of the following is the method to use to determine
the number of sets and subsets of items?
a. Combination
b. Permutation
c. Factorization
d. Simulation

SMU Assignments: Summer 2013: Contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

Summer 2013 

Master of Business Administration- MBA Semester 4
QM0015 - ISOQS 9000 Elements - 4 Credits
(Book ID: B1348)
Assignment – 60 marks
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1.     Define Quality Management System. Explain the scope of Quality management system.
(Meaning – 3 marks, Scope – 7 marks)     10 marks
Q2.     Explain Design review and Design verification.
(Explanation of each – 5 marks)     10 marks
Q3.     Explain Product identification and traceability.
(Explanation – 10 marks)     10 marks
Q4.     Explain in-process inspection and testing. Discuss Measurement system analysis (MSA) in QS 9000.
(Explanation – 5 marks, MSA – 5 marks)     10 marks
Q5.     a. Describe the inventory control as per ISO standards.
(Description – 5 marks)
b. Describe the procedural requirements that the organisation must follow while documenting the quality records.
(Procedural requirements – 5 marks)     10 marks
Q6.     What are the advantages of employee training? What are the different activities an organisation should undertake while training the employees?
(Advantages – 5 marks, Activities – 5 marks)     10 marks


Summer 2013 

Master of Business Administration- MBA Semester 4
QM0016 - Managing Quality in the Organisation- 4 Credits
(Book ID: B1349)
Assignment – 60 marks
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1.     a. Discuss managing quality transformation in organisation.    10 marks
Q2.     Explain the different steps of quality statements. Describe the factors in planning for quality     10 marks
Q3.     Explain the steps involved to determine customer satisfaction. Explain any two tools used to determine customer needs.     10 marks
Q4.     Explain the importance of employee involvement for maximising quality.
(Explanation – 10 marks)     10 marks
Q5.     Explain the steps involved in an effective training needs analysis.
(Steps – 10 marks)     10 marks
Q6.     Define Business ethics.    10 marks


Summer 2013 

Master of Business Administration- MBA Semester 4
QM0018 - Quality Development Methods - 4 Credits
(Book ID: B1351)
Assignment – 60 marks
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1.     Define strategic quality management. Discuss the elements of strategic quality management
(Meaning – 4 marks, Elements – 6 marks)     10 marks
Q2.     Explain the types, advantages and drawbacks of qualitative research.
(Types - 4 marks, Advantages – 3 marks, Drawbacks – 3 marks)     10 marks
Q3.     Define skill based quality management. Explain the guidelines of change management.
(Meaning – 4 marks, Guidelines – 6 marks)     10 marks
Q4.     Explain the modelling techniques of value engineering
(Meaning – 2 marks, Modelling Techniques – 8 marks)     10 marks
Q5.     Elucidate the key features of kaizen. Discuss the implementation of kaizen.
(Meaning - 2 marks, Features – 4 marks, Implementation – 4 marks)     10 marks
Q6.     Explain Just in Time and Kanban.
(Explanation – 5 marks each)     10 marks


Summer 2013 

Master of Business Administration- MBA Semester 4
QM0017 - Quality Management System - 4 Credits
(Book ID: B1350)
Assignment – 60 marks
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1.     Explain the various principles of Quality Management Systems.
(Meaning – 3 marks, Principles -7 marks)     10 marks
Q2.     Explain scope and goals of ISO/TS 16949.
(Scope – 5 marks, Goals – 5 marks)     10 marks
Q3.     Explain the procedures and benefits of SA 8000.
(Procedure – 5 marks, Benefits – 5 marks)     10 marks
Q4.     Explain the maturity levels of People Capability Maturity Model (People CMM)
(Meaning - 2 marks, Maturity Levels - 8 marks)     10 marks
Q5.     What is ISO 22000? Describe the key elements. What are the benefits of ISO 22000?
(Meaning – 2 marks, Elements – 5 marks, Benefits - 3 marks)     10 marks
Q6.     What is business excellence? Explain core themes of excellence.
(Meaning –4 marks, Core themes – 6 marks)     10 marks


Summer 2013 

Master of Business Administration- MBA Semester 4
MB0053 –International Business Management -4 Credits
(Book ID: B1724)
Assignment- 60 marks
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1. The world economy is globalizing at an accelerating pace. What do you mean by globalization? Discuss the merits and demerits of Globalization.
(meaning of globalization - 2 marks, merits- 4 marks, demerits- 4 marks) 10 marks
Q2. The international trade theories explain the basics behind international trade. Compare the Absolute and comparative cost advantage theories with the help of example.
(explain the 2 theories - 6 marks, examples- 4 marks) 10 marks
Q3. Culture is more often a source of conflict than synergy. As an Indian manager, what management style and corporate culture you should be aware of while travelling to Japan and to USA?
( Japanese corporate culture - 5 marks, USA’s corporate culture - 5 marks) 10 marks
Q4. Regional integration is the bonding between nations and states through political, cultural and economic cooperation. A whole range of regional integration exists today. Discuss these 6 types in brief.
(6 Types of regional integration - 10 marks) 10 marks
Q5. The decision of a firm to compete internationally will be strategic. While formulating global marketing strategies, how should a firm deal with segmentation, market positioning and international product policy?
( segmentation-3 marks, positioning - 4 marks, product policy- 3 marks) 10 marks
Q6. Global sourcing industry is on a growth run as there are sound business reasons to it. Discuss these reasons with examples.
( reasons for global sourcing- 7 marks, examples- 3 marks) 10 marks


Summer 2013 

Master of Business Administration- MBA Semester 4
MB0052 – Strategic Management and Business Policy - 4 Credits
(Book ID: B1699)
Assignment- 60 marks
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1.     A well- formulated strategy is vital for growth and development of any organization. Explain corporate strategy in different types of organizations.
(Corporate strategy in small business 2marks ; Corporate strategy in large business 2marks; Corporate strategy in multinational 2 marks; Corporate strategy on public sectors 2marks; Corporate strategy on non-profit organizations 2marks)     10 marks
Q2.     Businesses need to be planned not only for today, but also for tomorrow, that is, for the future which implies business continuity. Write the importance of business continuity planning. Explain any two strategies for business continuity planning.
(Meaning of business continuity planning 2 marks; Importance of business continuity planning 3 marks ; Explanation of any 2 business continuity planning 5 marks)     10 marks
Q3.     Governed corporation is a model of successful corporate governance. Define and explain governed corporation. Distinguish between managed corporation and governed corporation in terms of board’s role, major characteristics and policies of a company.
(Definition and introduction governed corporation 4 marks; Distinguish between managed corporation and governed corporation.(each point of difference carries 2 marks) 6 marks)     10 marks
Q4.     Price or market competitiveness of a product or business depends on its cost competitiveness. Cost competitiveness implies two things-cost efficiency and cost effectiveness. Explain the concept of cost efficiency of an organization. Analyze the major determinants of cost efficiency.     10 marks


Summer 2013 

(Introduction of cost efficiency 2 marks; explanation of four major factors of cost efficiency 8 marks)
Q5.     Stability strategy is most commonly used by an organization. An organization will continue in similar business as it currently pursues similar objectives and resource base. Discuss six situations when it is good/best to pursue stability strategy. Give some Indian examples.
(Explanation of six situations 6 marks; examples 4 marks)     10 marks
Q6.     Corporate culture governs, to a large extent, business ethics and values in an organization. Describe the state of business ethics in Indian companies. Analyze in terms of KPMG business ethics survey.
(Introduction of business ethics in Indian companies 2 marks; Major findings of KPMG 8 marks)     10 Marks

SMU Assignments : Summer 2013: Contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

Summer 2013
Master of Business Administration - MBA Semester 3 ML0010 – Warehousing and Supply Chain Management - 4 Credits
(Book ID: B1761)
Assignment- 60 marks
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1.     What do you mean by warehousing and What are the attributes of Ideal     10 Marks
Warehousing? (Meaning - 2 marks, Explaining Attributes - 8 marks)
Q2.     Examine the fundamental dimensions of customer service.     (Detail     10 Marks

explanation of 3 fundamental dimensions - 8 marks, Diagram – 2 Marks)
Q3.     Discuss     the     major     drivers     of     supply     chain     performance     briefly.     (     10 Marks

Introduction & Diagram - 2 marks, Explaining drivers - 8 marks)
Q4.     Enumerate the three basic steps involved in the achievement of strategic     10 Marks
fit. (Detail explanation of 3 basic steps - 8 marks, Diagram - 2 marks)
Q5.     What are the basics of strategic supply chain management and also enlist     10 Marks
the imperatives for the supply chain strategy? (Explanation of strategic
supply chain management – 2 marks, Diagram - 2 marks, Listing the
imperatives - 6 marks)
Q6.     Explain the various factors that are taken into view while assessing and     10 Marks
scoring the suppliers. (Detail explanation of factors - 10 marks)


Summer 2013
Master of Business Administration - MBA Semester 3
ML0011 – Buying and Merchandising - 4 Credits
(Book ID: B1762)
Assignment- 60 marks
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1.     Explain the various principles of an ideal merchandising giving suitable     10 Marks
examples for each? (Meaning of Ideal Merchandising – 2, Detail explanation
of 14 principles - 8 marks)
Q2.     Enumerate the category management strategies that are used by retailers     10 Marks
to ensure a smooth category management process. (Meaning of category
management – 2 marks, Detail explanation of 7 steps – 8 marks)
Q3.     Discuss the concept of open-to-buy system. How do you calculate open-     10 Marks
to-buy for the past and current period? (Detail explanation on the concept of
OTB system - 3 marks, Calculation of OTB for past period – 2 marks,
Calculation of OTB for current period - 5 marks)
Q4.     Enumerate some merits and demerits of Formal Buying Organization,     10 Marks
Informal Buying Organization, Centralized Buying & Decentralized Buying
along with diagrammatic representation of functions and attributes of the
buying department.(Diagrammatic representation of functions and Attributes
of the buying department – 2 marks, Merits and Demerits of formal buying – 2
marks, Merits and Demerits of informal buying – 2 marks, Merits and Demerits
of Centralized buying – 2 marks, Merits and Demerits of Decentralized buying –
2 marks )
Q5.     Enumerate the first 5 steps in Merchandise Buying and Handling Process     10 Marks
(Explanation of first 5 steps – 8 marks, Diagram - 2 marks)
Q6.     ‘Selecting an appropriate vendor is the key step in the success of an     10 Marks
enterprise’. (Detail explanation of five steps - 9 marks, Diagram – 1 mark)


Summer 2013
Master of Business Administration - MBA Semester 3
ML0012 – Store Operations - 4 Credits
(Book ID: B1763)
Assignment- 60 marks
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1.     Explain Pre-Store opening activities and State at least 10 pre-store     10 Marks
opening activities that should be ideally carried out in a retail store?
(Meaning of Pre-Store opening activity – 2 marks, 10 activities - 8 marks)
Q2.     What are the functions of a store manager? (Brief explanation of at least 10     10 Marks
functions of a retail store manager – 10 marks)
Q3.     What does an optimum store layout ensure? (Brief explanation of at least 10     10 Marks
factors which explains optimum store layout – 10 marks)
Q4.     Write a note on any two types of classification on the basis of the nature     10 Marks
of merchandise. (Classification on basis of Nature of Merchandise – 7 marks,
Classification on the basis of usability and condition of merchandise – 3 marks )
Q5.     Define standardization and explain the levels of standardization     10 Marks
(Explanation of standardization – 2 marks, Explaining the levels of
standardization - 8 marks)
Q6.     How does a store control the quality of its merchandise? (Detail     10 Marks
explanation of five steps in quality control procedure - 10 marks)


Summer 2013
Master of Business Administration - MBA Semester 3
ML0013 – Retail IT Management - 4 Credits
(Book ID: B1764)
Assignment- 60 marks
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1.     Explain the various factors affecting the use of IT applications in the retail     10 Marks
industry? (Detailed explanation on factors – 10 marks)
Q2.     What is the impact of e-retailing in the travel and tourism sector? (Detail     10 Marks
explanation of e-retailing in travel and tourism sector with examples – 10
marks)
Q3.     What is RFID technology and how does it work? (Detail explanation on     10 Marks
working of RFID technology – 6 marks, concept of RFID – 2 marks,     and
diagram – 2 marks)
Q4.     Describe the various features of retail software. (Detail explanation on     10 Marks
functions of retail software - 10 marks)
Q5.     Briefly describe the steps involved in designing a database. (Explanation     10 Marks
of 5 steps involved in designing a database - 10 marks)
Q6.     Explain the various types of networks. (Detail explanation of five types of     10 Marks
networks - 10 marks)

IIBM case studies/Exam papers : Contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

Semester II Examination Papers
IIBM Institute of Business Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Semester-II Examination Paper MM.100
Business Law
Section A: Objective Type (30 marks)
This section consists of Multiple choice questions & Short Notes type questions.
Answer all the questions.
Part One questions carry 2 marks each & Part Two questions carry 4 marks each.
Part One:
Multiple choices:
1. A condition cannot be treated as warranty in the following circumstances and waiver is implied:
a. Where the buyer waives a condition or elects to treat the breach of warranty.
b. Where a contract of sale is not severable and the buyer has accepted the goods or part thereof.
c. The breach of any condition to be fulfilled by the seller can only be treated as a breach of
warranty, unless provided for otherwise in the contract.
d. Obstructs or prevents the other party from fulfilling his part of promise.
e. All of the above.
2. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. An agreement with or by the minor is void and inoperative.
b. A contract entered by the guardian for the beneficiary of a minor is not valid.
c. A minor by misrepresenting his age can enter into a valid contract.
d. A minor can create contractual obligations as a partner.
e. A minor can ratify all invalid acts as valid on attaining majority at any time.
3. Which of the following will amount to material alteration of a cheque?
a. When the holder crosses an uncrossed cheque.
b. When the holder converts general crossing into special crossing by adding the name of the
banker on he face of the cheque.
c. When the holder converts special crossing into general crossing by erasing the name of the
banker in the cheque.
d. When the holder adds the word “Not negotiable.”
e. When a banker crosses an uncrossed cheque or converts a general or special crossing to
another banker or to himself.
4. The right of transfer may be denied in case of private companies as?
a. The company may not refuse to register the transfer or transmission by operation of law.
b. The company may not refuse to register the transfer by virtue of power conferred on it by the
articles or otherwise.
c. The articles of the company contain restrictions as to transferability of shares.
d. The power of refusal to register a transfer is exercised with malafide intention and against the
interest f the company.
e. None of the above.
Semester II Examination Papers
IIBM Institute of Business Management
5. Which of the following is true?
a. A minor may be enrolled as a member if he acquires shares through transfer.
b. A company cannot become a member of another company.
c. A partnership firm can become a member of any other company.
d. Where an official liquidator is appointed in respect of certain shares, he can be registered as a
member.
e. None of the above.
Part Two:
o What is ‘Restitution’?
o Who are ‘Lunatic persons’?
o What is ‘coercion’?
o What are ‘contingent contracts’?
o What is ‘Doctrine of restitution’?
END OF SECTION A
Section B: Practical Problems (40 marks)
This section consists of Practical Problems. Answer all the Problems.
Each carries 10 marks.
1) ‘A’ delivered gold to a jeweler for making certain ornaments. Jeweler refused to deliver the
ornaments when ready. He claims that until ‘A’ pays him the charges for making the ornaments
and also the sum of Rs. 1,000, which was due to him from ‘A’ on certain earlier transactions, he
is entitled to retain ornaments. Advice ‘A’.
2) A sells a radio to ‘M’, a minor, who pays for it by cheque. ‘A’ indorses the cheque to ‘B’ who
takes it in good faith and for value. The cheque is dishonored on presentation. Can ‘B’ enforce
payment of the cheque against ‘A’ or ‘M’?
3) Mr.Nandkani is a shopkeeper. He agreed to sell to Mr. James some kind of oil described as
“foreign refined rape on warranted only equal to sample”. The samples contained an admixture
of hemp oil and the oil delivered was adultered in the same way .After purchasing, Mr.James
found that the oil was not rape oil. What is the right of Mr. James as a Purchaser?
4) Mr. Shamrao Garud, being entitled to an estate for the life of Me, Dada Kokil agrees to sell Dada
estate to Mr.R. N Upalekar. But Mr. Dada Kokil was dead at the time of agreement and Mr.
Semester II Examination Papers
IIBM Institute of Business Management
Garud as well as Mr. Upalekar was not having the knowledge of the fact .Is this agreement void
on the ground of mistake, misrepresentation or fraud?
END OF SECTION B
Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)
This section consists of Long Questions.
Answer all the questions.
Each question carries 15 marks.
“Section 4(1) of the Sale of Goods Act says that a contract of sale of goods is a contract whereby
the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property and Sub-section (3) deals with an agreement
to sell where the transfer of property in goods take place at future time.” Distinguish a sale from
an agreement to sell.
“Section 14 of the Act says that the making, acceptance or endorsement of a promissory note,
bill of exchange or cheque is completed by delivery, actual or constructive.” Define and explain
the term “Negotiation” as per the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
END OF SECTION C
---------------------------------------------------------***-------------------------------------------------------

IIBM case studies/Exam papers : Contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

Note: Solve any 4 Cases Study’s

CASE: I    Pushing Paper Can Be Fun

A large city government was putting on a number of seminars for managers of various departments throughout the city. At one of these sessions the topic discussed was motivation—how to motivate public servants to do a good job. The plight of a police captain became the central focus of the discussion:
I’ve got a real problem with my officers. They come on the force as young, inexperienced rookies, and we send them out on the street, either in cars or on a beat. They seem to like the contact they have with the public, the action involved in crime prevention, and the apprehension of criminals. They also like helping people out at fires, accidents, and other emergencies.
The problem occurs when they get back …


Question:

1.    What performance problems is the captain trying to correct?
2.    Use the MARS model of individual behavior and performance to diagnose the possible causes of the unacceptable behavior.
3.    Has the captain considered all possible solutions to the problem? If not, what else might be done?

CASE: II    How Did I Get Here?

Something was not right. John Breckenridge opened his eyes, saw the nurse’s face, and closed them once more. Cobwebs slowly cleared from his brain as he woke up from his brain as he woke up from the operation. He felt a hard tube in his nostril, and tried to lift his hand to pull it out, but it was strapped down to the bed. John tried to speak but could make only a …
much and had worked far too hard. Midmorning he had been felled by a massive heart attack.
All of this history passed through John Breckenridge’s mind as he woke after the operation. It was time for a change.




Question:

1.    Identify the stressors in John Breckenridge’s life. Which ones could he have prevented?

2.    What were the results of the stress? Would you consider these to be typical to stress situations and lifestyle choices John made, or was John Breckenridge unlucky?

3.    Assume you are a career coach retained by John Breckenridge to guide him through his next decisions. How would you recommend that John modify his lifestyle and behavior to reduce stress? Should he change jobs? Do you believe he is capable of reducing his stress alone? If not, where should he seek help?



CASE: III    The Shipping Industry Accounting Team

For the past five years I have been working at McKay, Sanderson, and Smith Associates, a mid-sized accounting firm in Boston that specializes in commercial accounting and audits. My particular specialty in accounting practices for shipping …
ould be quite happy to work somewhere that did not require any of these long-distance team headaches.

Question:

1.    What type of team was formed here? Was it necessary, in your opinion?

2.    Use the team effectiveness model in Chapter 9 and related information in this chapter to identify the strengths and weaknesses of this team’s environment, design, and processes.

3.    Assuming that these four people must continue to work as a team, recommend ways to improve the team’s effectiveness.























CASE: IV    Conflict In Close Quarters
A team of psychologists at Moscow’s Institute for Biomedical Problems (IBMP) wanted to learn more about the dynamics of long-term isolation in space. This knowledge would be applied to the International Space Station, a joint project of several countries that would send people into space for more than six months. It would eventually include a trip to Mars taking up to three years.
IBMP set up a replica of the Mir space station in Moscow. They then arranged for three international researchers from Japan, Canada, and Austria 110 days isolated in a chamber the size of a train car. This chamber joined a smaller …
with the Russian interpretation of events. “They’re trying to protect themselves,” he says. “They’re trying to put the fault on others. But this is not a cultural issue. If a woman doesn’t want to be kissed, it is not acceptable.”











Question:

1.    Identify the different conflict episodes that exist in this case. Who was in conflict with whom?

2.    What are the sources of conflict for these conflict incidents?

3.    What conflict management style(s) did Lapierre, the international team, and Gushin use to resolve these conflicts? What style(s) would have worked best in the situation?




CASE: V   Hillton’s Transformation 

Twenty years ago Hillton was a small city (about 70,000 residents) that served as an outer to a large Midwest metropolitan area. The city treated employees like family and gave them a great deal of autonomy in their work. Everyone in the organization (including the two labor unions representing employees) implicitly agreed that the leaders and supervisors of the organization should rise through the ranks based on their experience. Few people were ever hired from the outside into middle or senior positions. The rule of employment at Hillton was to learn the job skills, maintain a reasonably good work record, and wait your turn for promotion.
Hillton had grown rapidly since the mid-1970s. As the population grew, so did the municipality’s workforce to keep pace with the increasing demand for municipal services. This meant that employees were promoted fairly quickly and were almost guaranteed employment. In fact, until recently Hillton had never laid off any employee. The organization’s culture could be described as one of entitlement and comfort. Neither the elected city council members nor the city manager bothered the department managers about their work. There were few costs controls because rapid growth forced emphasis on keeping up with the population expansion. The public became somewhat more critical of the city’s poor services, including road construction at inconvenient times and the apparent lack of respect some employees showed towards taxpayers.
During these expansion years Hillton put most of its money into “outside” (also called “hard”) municipal services such as road building, utility construction and maintenance, fire and police protection, recreational facilities, and land use control. This emphasis occurred because an expanding population demanded more of these services, and most of Hillton’s senior people came from the outside services group. For example, Hillton’s city manager for many years was a road development engineer. The “inside” workers (taxation, …
guarantees, whereas the union representing inside workers focused more on improving wages and benefits. Leaders of the outside union made several statements in the local media that the city had “lost its heart” and that the public would suffer from the actions of the new professionals.


Question:

1.    Contrast Hillton’s earlier corporate culture with the emerging set of cultural values.

2.    Considering the difficulty in changing organizational culture, why did Hillton’s management seem to be successful at this transformation?

3.    Identify two other strategies that the city might consider to reinforce the new set of corporate values.

IIBM Exam papers: contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

Examination Paper: Hotel Management 
IIBM Institute of Business Management 1 

IIBM Institute of Business Management
Examination Paper MM.100
Managing Hotel Operations
Section A: Objective Type (30 Marks)
• This section consists of Multiple Choice Questions and Short notes type Questions.
• Answer all the questions.
• Part one carry 1 mark each and Part two questions carry 5 marks each.

Part One:
Multiple Choices:
1. Housekeeping is the responsibility of:
a. Hotel manager
b. Reservation manager
c. Rooms manager
d. Executive assistant manager

2. Which of the following is not the method of minimizing the overbooking problem:
a. Increasing restrictive policy
b. Third party guaranty
c. Threat of legislation
d. Advance- deposit reservation

3. Which of the following is the channel of the traditional reservation:
a. The changing role of travel agent
b. In-house reservation
c. Central reservation center
d. All of these

4. The real component of “TQM” is?
a. Bedding
b. Cleanliness
c. Noise ,temperature and darkness
d. All of the above

5. Arrange the following into hotel organizational structure:
i. The room manager
ii. The general manager
iii. The hotel manager
iv. Manager of guest services.


Examination Paper: Hotel Management 
IIBM Institute of Business Management 2 

a. i, ii, iii, iv
b. ii, iv, i, iii
c. ii, iii ,i, iv
d. iv, ii, iii, i

6. Alphabetical list of the day’s expected arrival, individually and by group is:
a. Cancellation and change report
b. Daily analysis report
c. Arrival report
d. Central reservation report

7. Which is not the component of credit management :
a. Extending credit
b. Credit alert and skippers
c. Minimizing charge backs
d. None of these

8. Reservation contained following information during the procedure are design to improve the effectiveness of the front office:
a. Arriving and departure dates
b. Number of night
c. Number of person
d. All of the above

9. Bank card is the kind of?
a. Debit card
b. Smart card
c. Credit card
d. None of these

10. Segmentation comes under:
a. New product pattern
b. New market Pattern
c. New product segmentation
d. New management pattern

Part Two:
1. Explain the special characteristics of hotel business?

2. Differentiate between the marketing to the individual and marketing to the group?


Examination Paper: Hotel Management 
IIBM Institute of Business Management 3 

3. List the Information contained in reservation.

4. Explain the organizational structure of hotel management?

END OF SECTION A 

END OF SECT
Section B: Caselets (40 Marks)
• This section consists of Caselets.
• Answer all the questions.
• Each Caselet carries 20 marks.
• Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 Words)

Caselet 1
The Benson Hotel, a mid-sized independent property required new leadership. Mike Schwartz, Vice- president of operations, pondered his next move as he reviewed last month’s financial statements. The Benson was an eighty-five-room three-star property with a full-service restaurant, lounge, banquet and health club facilities. The rapidly changing marketplace and new competition from well-established franchises had made Mike’s job and the Benson’s position more tenuous. Mike decided to commission a consultant’s report on the property. He called up his longtime friend Jim Burke, who had worked for major chains across the country and was now a hospitality consultant.
“Jim, how are you old buddy?” Mike asked.
“I am doing very well Mike. This consulting work has run me off my feet. What can I do for you?” Jim Asked.
“Well Jim, I need an independent review of the Benson. We’re holding our own but these franchise guys with their management contracts are really getting aggressive,” Mike said.
“Yes, I know what you mean Mike. I have just completed a marketing study for a new building across town. These guys have some great programs. You have to try and stay ahead of them,” said Jim.
Mike asked, “Do you think you could visit the property and have some lunch next week? I would like to start with an employee survey and some site work. You’ll be working alongside my general manager, Sean Waters. Sean’s been with us for about two years. Jim, I have some concerns about this guy and I’d like to have a fresh set of eyes look at what’s going on at the Benson. Okay?”
Jim hesitated, “Okay Mike. How about next Thursday 10:00 a.m.? I’ll meet you in the lobby.”
“Wonderful, Jim. We’ll see you then.”
Sean waters had been recruited by Mike as a rising star. Sean’s background led Mike to believe he possessed a true spirit for hospitality, especially in the food service area. Sean had worked his way up in reputable full – service properties and restaurants while completing an undergraduate degree in hospitability. So, what had gone so wrong at the Benson for Mike to feel he needed to bring in a consultant to figure it out? Three months later Mike had an interim report on his desk.
Physical Plant Priorities
The following is a review of specific areas of the Benson Hotel that require attention. 

Examination Paper: Hotel Management 
IIBM Institute of Business Management 4 

Sales Office- Located just off the lobby, this space is open to the public and is well below standards for this level of property. The property has worked hard to attract the corporate market. A well-renovated business center shared with a working sales area would enhance this area gently.
Banquet Servery- Located on the lower level from the main kitchen, this area seems more of a storage area; in fact this could serve as a limited holding area for banquet service. There is no counter space and no secure shelving to store dishes, glassware, or cutlery. Floors and walls are in need of refinishing. Guests have gained access to this area on occasion.
Exterior Garbage Area- The main compactor located in the rear parking lot of the hotel should be enclosed. It is unsightly to guests and can be viewed from the road by surrounding residences. A possible solution would be to pour a concrete slab allowing for drainage and build an enclosure on three sides to ensure access for pick-up.
Access for persons with disabilities –Presently, the Benson has no access or rooms for guests with disabilities. At least two units should be converted for this purpose. The main reconfigurations are the bathrooms and doorways. On a few occasions guests with disabilities were observed leaving the hotel for other properties in the area that had such facilities. It is a good marketing initiative and may become necessary to maintain the rating of the property.
Lobby- The lobby chairs and broadloom should be upgraded to reflect the marketplace and reputation of the property.
Back Office Computer– There is presently no stand- alone back office computer. The computers on the property are dated and solely devoted to a property management system that is not Windows based. The following functions could be served with a back office computer.
• Inventory analysis
• Database marketing
• Effective and professional word processing

Parking Lot –The rear parking lot is of particular concern; it does not reflect a three-star property.
Human Resources
The Benson Hotel, like many others before it, had over the years placed people in positions of authority with little or no training to support their efforts. This was true in the following revenue centers.
Dining Room – During high season the dining room enjoys record covers on many nights. However, there was one very stressful situation observed. The staffing was mixed with senior staff followed by poorly trained “warm bodies”. The situation was made worse by the supervisor, Rachel, who was perceived by the staff as unfair, unapproachable, and often playing favorites with her friends and family. Rachel, in all fairness, has had no training and was clearly not the person for the job. She repeatedly showed disrespect for her fellow workers and kitchen staff. Unfairness was clearly displayed in the allotment of high-gratuity-paying work such as banquets and bus tours. Rachel played favorites. She would schedule herself and friends to serve high-gratuity events. If you were not her favorite, you were relegated to breakfast shifts or similar low-gratuity work. An example is the new girl, Donna, who Rachel hired this summer. Rachel is already giving preferential shifts to Donna over Isabel, who has been at the Benson for more than five years. Rachel based her decision on Isabel’s poor performance, which Rachel said other employees would agree with. This was not the case when fellow workers were asked. Rachel had also threatened to lay off Isabel in the slow months instead of Donna or Rachel’s daughter Lucy. This was clearly an old management style and unacceptable in any operation. Rachel is also resentful that the kitchen receives 25 percent of group meal gratuities. In her opinion they do not deserve it. This feeling has permeated among her allies, instilling an “us against them” animosity between the kitchen and service staff.
Kitchen Operation – The kitchen staff is competent, but leadership is seriously lacking in this area. James, the interim kitchen supervisor, has difficulty coping with the restricted responsibilities placed on him and often projects these feelings onto fellow staff. This attitude also has a further negative effect on Rachel and her staff in the dining area. Chief Wilhelm left three months ago and left little incentive for James to perform his duties as sous-chef. James is somewhat adrift, constantly complaining that he is doing a chef’s job and receiving cook’s pay. 

Examination Paper: Hotel Management 
IIBM Institute of Business Management 5 

Management controls and reporting such as inventory are inaccurate at best, with related reports poorly presented. Production and food handling require improvement from a quality and sanitation point of view. It seems that many foods taken out for preparation or serving then are left out in a hot kitchen to deteriorate or go to waste. Scheduling of kitchen employees does not seem to relate to business peaks and valleys. This has resulted in calling in casual kitchen staff on short notice, resulting in paid-outs over the counter. One such employee is Gerald, the dishwasher who is Lucy’s boyfriend. Rachel on occasion has taken it upon herself to call Gerald in for dishwashing duty when clearly it is James’s responsibility to make the call. This situation provides an opportunity for Rachel to extend her influence beyond the realm of her authority and has led to increased friction between Rachel and James.
Employee Audit
This part of Jim’s report was a detailed employee audit interviewing employees on issues from the parking lot all the way up to the general manager. It provided Mike with some food for thought. Jim’s opening comments was: “if I had to make only one general statement about the relationship between the employer and employees at this time, I would have to say that it is limping along at a slow, steady pace. Most of the employees appear satisfied with the type of work they are doing and they speak well for the company.” Under the section “Lack of Credibility on the part of the General Manager,” Mike’s worst fears were confirmed. Jim’s report continued, “As far as the remainder of the employees are concerned, they do what they have to and then ignore the general manager. His level of credibility with these employees is zero. One employee was very philosophical about it when she said “At least we know what we have to deal with, and we are learning how to deal with him. If they get rid of him we could get someone worse.” Supporting comments from employees included:
• The general manager is always right.
• The morale of the employees varies with the moods of the general manager
• The general manager intimidates some employees.
• The general manager tries to impress the upper management by pitching in to help when they are here, but when they are not here he doesn’t lift a finger.

Jim summed up this section of his report to Mike like this: “This is a case of employees working well in spite of the general manager rather than because of him. The main problem with this situation is that a reputable company such as the Benson Hotel cannot support the actions of a general manager with this type of comportment and still maintain a workable relationship with its employees. My opinion at this point is that something has to change.”
Questions:
1. Do you feel it was necessary for Mike to commission a consultant’s report on the Benson? Why or why not? How would you have approached the situation?
2. Identify and propose solutions for the supervisory challenges in the kitchen and dining areas of the Benson Hotel.
Caselet 2
The Rainbow Golf resort had something to celebrate. The 120- unit golf resort consisting of villas and condominiums had recently been “re-branded” from a franchise to an independent property. The new owner, Ken Okura, was reviewing the present organizational structure of the Rainbow along with the files of key personnel presently running the operation. During the transition period Ken had recruited his own team including a Vice-President of operations, Director of sales and marketing and Director of Food and Beverage to restructure the organization; however, he still had a few key areas to fill in. In the past, each 

Examination Paper: Hotel Management 
IIBM Institute of Business Management 6 

member of the resort’s management team had staked out his or her own turf with little internal communication. As a case in point, ken often noticed Shirley, the accountant, regularly directing the front desk on policies and procedures. All this happened under the watch of Jeremy, the resort’s Rooms Division Manager, who didn’t seem to take notice of such actions. Ken thought that this overlap of authority surely must confuse the front desk staff.
The transition period had provided Ken with a window of opportunity to evaluate the line and supervisory staff. Ken had retained Ted Barrow, a human resources consultant; his report’s findings were quite a surprise to Ken. Ted’s report began with the following staff concerns:
• The management does not work together. There is no teamwork, only “flexing” for power. Managers are out to protect their turf. This attitude pervades the resort.
• There is no apparent overall direction for the resort. If there is, it is not being communicated throughout the organization.
• There is no general manager or controller on site. The feeling is that if these people were around, conflict among the department heads could be avoided.
• There is insufficient training. Employees are thrown into their jobs without being ready to perform them properly. They should have proper preparation before they have to deal with guests.
• Some departments (front desk in particular) are terribly understaffed. This causes service problems as well as high staff turnover.
• The staff morale is low. Employees work in separate departments and get caught in a rut. There is no overall team spirit. It’s more like “every man for himself.”
• There is little or no awareness of how other departments operate. This knowledge is necessary to help us understand how we impact each other.
• Many people are currently unhappy. The labor pool is small, and if they leave it will be tough to replace them. Management should work to keep the staff happy.
• There seems to be a consensus that staff members want to be able to provide good service, but too many constraints are placed on them to be able to do so.
• It is difficult to know who to go if someone has a problem with his or her manager. There should be someone designated as the resort manager so that employees have someone to communicate with should the need to do so arise.

Ken assembled his new team to map out strategies to address the operational challenges and employee concerns.
Questions:
1. Identify and describe four short-term operational strategies Ken should implement immediately at

the Rainbow Golf Resort.
2. Which form of top-down communication would be most suitable for the Rainbow Golf Resort to achieve its objectives?

B 

END OF SECTION B 

Examination Paper: Hotel Management 
IIBM Institute of Business Management 7 

Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)
• This section consists of Applied Theory Questions.
• Answer all the questions.
• Each question carries 10 marks.
• Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 200 to 250 Words)

1. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of hotel technology?

2. Discuss how the room rates impact on guest demand?

3. Explain the traditional hotel industry?

END OF SECTION C 

SMU Assignments : Summer 2013: Contact us for answers at assignmentssolution@gmail.com

Summer 2013
MASTER OF BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION (MBA) - PROJECT MANAGEMENT
SEMESTER 4
PM 0017 –PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT – 4 CREDITS
(BOOK ID: B1346)
ASSIGNMENT – 60 MARKS
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be
approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1. Discuss the various tools used for understanding data.
(4 tools -10 marks , i.e. each tool 2.5 marks)
10 marks
Q2. Write short notes on The Enterprise Project Management Model.
(Brief Explanation of : Enterprise project management; Working of EPM within the
model; Implementation of EPM; Advantages of an EPM System – 2.5 marks each ,
total 10 marks )
10 marks
Q3. Explain communities of practice
(Definition and description of Communities of Practice (CoP) – 5 marks, The role of
Communities of practice in helping organizations to compete globally through
information sharing across the globe – 5 marks)
10 marks
Q4. The project management initiative program is a six step process which is designed to
bring about a measurement team from the introduction to the project managementfocused
measurements through the design, the development and the implementation
of the project management value measurement program. Explain the six steps in the
project management initiative program.
(6 steps X 1.67 marks = 10 marks)
10 marks
Q5. Briefly explain the seven forces involved in the success of quality in project
management.
(7 forces X 1.25 marks = 8.75 marks , conclusion – 1.25 marks)
10 marks
Q6. Explain briefly the Inspection-Planning and necessity in quality.
10 marks

Summer 2013
MASTER OF BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION (MBA) - PROJECT MANAGEMENT
SEMESTER 4
PM 0018 –CONTRACTS MANAGEMENT IN PROJECTS - 4 CREDITS
(BOOK ID: B1347)
ASSIGNMENT- 60 MARKS
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be
approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1. Fixed price contracts have a pre-set price that the vendor must adhere to in
performing the work and in providing materials. There are different types of
fixed price contracts. Explain them.
(5 fixed price contracts X 2 marks =10 marks)
10 marks
Q2. Direct contracting is another procurement method that is used under a
limited number of exceptional circumstances. Explain the Conditions for
adopting direct contracting , requirements and steps for direct contracting
(Conditions for adopting direct contracting-6 marks; Requirements – 2 marks
and Steps for direct contracting – 2 marks)
10 marks
Q3.
Write short notes on Cost Plus Fee Contracts
( Explanation of Cost Plus Fee Contracts – 1 mark, Features – 3 marks ,
Conditions for adopting – 3 marks; Advantages and disadvantages- 3
marks)
10 marks
Q4.
The methods of selecting a consultant are designed to achieve the
objectives of quality, efficiency, fairness and transparency in the selection
process and to encourage competition. Discuss any 2 methods of selecting
consultants.
(explanation – total 2 marks, where appropriate – total 4 marks, Type of
assignments for which this method of selection is adopted – total 4 marks)
10 marks
Q5. The contract control process commences right at the beginning stage of bid
document preparation inviting contractors to bid, and proceeds through the
contract negotiation, contractor selection, monitoring and controlling of the
10 marks
Summer 2013
contractor’s work and terminating the contract. Explain the areas that need
attention for effective control of the contracts in a project.
(Core competence of the project manager – 3 marks ; Requirements of the
working system – 3 marks ; Use of Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) – 3
marks; Recognising the limitations with flexibility – 1 mark)
Q6. Explain the need of Procurement law and what are its objectives?
(Need – 5 marks; objectives – 5 marks)
10 marks
Summer 2013
MASTER OF BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION (MBA) - PROJECT MANAGEMENT
SEMESTER 4
PM 0016 –PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT – 4 CREDITS
(BOOK ID: B1345)
ASSIGNMENT- 60 MARKS
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be
approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1. Explain the various inputs and tools and techniques of qualitative risk
analysis process.
(Major inputs – 4 marks, tools and techniques – 6 marks)
10 marks
Q2. The risk mitigation methodology describes the approach to control
implementation. Explain the steps of the methodology.
(8.75 marks for methodology, conclusion – 1.25 marks)
10 marks
Q3.
There are two main strategies to handle risks, negative risks and
positive risks. Explain the Response strategies for threats (Negative
Risks) .
(4 X 2.5 marks for each strategy)
10 marks
Q4.
What are the tips to remove the top three project estimating risks?
Explain in brief.
(Explanation of tips – 9 marks; conclusion- 1 mark)
10 marks
Q5. An organisation building a risk-based culture must offer incentives for
incorporating risk into the project planning and control process.
Analyse the concept of performance incentive.
(Importance of offering incentives – 2 marks; Explanation of categories
of incentive including the analysis of it motivates employees to take a
particular course of action – 8 marks)
10 marks
Summer 2013
Q6. Explain project reviews and risk reassessment briefly.
(Reasons for reviews and reassessment – 2 marks; Outcome of
reviews – 2 marks; Explanation of : Schedule the review, Objectives
for the review, Conduct the review - 6 marks)
10 marks
Summer 2013
MASTER OF BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION (MBA) - PROJECT MANAGEMENT
SEMESTER 4
PM 0015 – QUANTITATIVE METHODS IN PROJECT MANAGEMENT – 4 CREDITS
(BOOK ID: B1344)
ASSIGNMENT- 60 MARKS
Note: Answer all questions. Kindly note that answers for 10 marks questions should be
approximately of 400 words. Each question is followed by evaluation scheme.
Q1. In order to include the cost aspects in the project scheduling, it is very
much necessary to first define the cost-duration relationships for various
activities in the project. Discuss Project Cost.
(Explanation of direct and indirect costs – 2 marks; effect of crashing the
activity on cost – 2 marks; direct cost-time relationship and indirect costtime
relationship -– 3 marks; explanation of cost slope , total project cost –
3 marks)
10 marks
Q2. Describe the importance of Business Forecasting.
(Need for forecasting with examples – 5 marks; Two common approaches
to forecasting – 5 marks)
10 marks
Q3. Explain the steps of the project budgeting process.
(5 steps X 2= 10 marks)\
10 marks
Q4. Describe how you can enter tasks in MS Project.
(Task Information Box / Task Sheet – 6, Other Methods of Adding Tasks-4
)
10 marks
Q5. Write short notes on Network Diagram Chart.
(Explanation of Network Diagram Chart – 2 marks, View the Network
Diagram Chart- 2 marks; Elements of the Network Diagram Chart – 2
marks; The Network Diagram Box – 2 marks; Navigating the Network
Diagram Chart- 2 marks)
10 marks
Q6. Discuss the algorithm for solving the shortest-route problem.
(Description of shortest-route problems – 2 marks; Description/discussion
of the steps of the algorithm – 8 marks)
10 marks