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Question Booklet Code: C Duration: 2 Hours
Course: Executive Master of Business Administration [EMBA] Year: First Year
Paper Code: 102103 Paper Name: Human Resource
Management
ATTEMPT ALL THE BELOW MENTIONED QUESTIONS:
1. Which one of the following becomes a
creative factor in production?
a. Land
b. Capital
c. Consumers
d. Human Resources
2. People cast in the role of contributors
to production are called
a. Capitalist
b. Land owners
c. Human Resources
d. Consumers
3. Wide range of abilities and attributes
possessed by people are called as
a. Management
b. Human Resources
c. Entrepreneur
d. Intreprenuer
4. Deployment of which resource is
difficult to master
a. Human
b. Land
c. Capital
d. Natural
5. The focus of Human Resource
Management revolves around
a. Machine
b. Motivation
c. Money
d. Men
6. Quality- oriented organization primary
concern centers around
a. Coordination
b. Communication
c. Human Resources
d. Discipline
7. Quality goals require alignment with
a. Production
b. Human Resources
c. Finance
d. Purchase
8. Demand for human resources and
management is created by
a. Expansion of industry
b. Shortage of labor
c. Abundance of capital
d. Consumer preferences
9. Management function arises as a result
of
a. Consumer preferences
b. Abundance of capital
c. Expansion of industry
d. Shortage of labor
10. Union function arises as a result of
employees
a. Problem of communication
b. Longing for belonging
c. Dissatisfaction
d. Change in technology
11. Human Resource Management is
primarily concerned with
a. Sales
b. Dimensions of people
c. External environment
d. Cost discipline
CMJ UNIVERSITY, SHILLONG
TERM END EXAMINATION - 2013
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12. Human Resource Management aims to
maximize employees as well
asorganizational
a. Effectiveness
b. Economy
c. Efficiency
d. none of the above
13. What is meant by the acronym VPS?
a. Valuable Pay System.
b. Valuable Pay Scheme.
c. Variable Pay Systems.
d. Voluntary Pay System.
14. What is meant by the acronym PRP?
a. Performance Recommended Pay.
b. Performance Related Pay.
c. Process Related Pay.
d. Performance Registered Pay.
15. What is meant by the acronym PBR?
a. Payment By Revision.
b. Payment By Results.
c. Payment By Reward.
d. Payment By Review.
16. According to WERS what is the most
common criteria used in the award of
variable pay?
a. Assessment by supervisor.
b. Acquisition of skills/core competencies.
c. Other measure of output.
d. Piece rate.
17. According to WERS, profit related is
most common in which sector?
a. Health.
b. Electricity, gas and water.
c. Education.
d. Construction.
18. According to WERS, data share
ownership is most common in which
sector?
a. Health.
b. Education.
c. Electricity, gas and water.
d. Finance.
19. What is meant by SAYE?
a. Save As you Estimate.
b. Save As You Employ.
c. Save As You Earn.
d. Spend As You Earn.
20. What is meant by a Profit Sharing
Scheme?
a. Where a trust is established which
purchases shares on the behalf of the
employee using money borrowed from a
financial institution.
b. Where an element of the total pay package
is related to the profitability of the
company.
c. Where an employee enters into a savings
contract with the option to purchase shares
at the end of the contract period at a price
fixed previously.
d. Approved Profit Sharing Schemes involve
distribution of shares to employees free of
charge.
21. What is meant by an Employee Share
Ownership Plan?
a. Where a trust is established which
purchases shares on the behalf of the
employee using money borrowed from a
financial institution.
b. Approved Profit Sharing Schemes involve
distribution of shares to employees free of
charge.
c. Where an element of the total pay package
is related to the profitability of the
company.
d. Where an employee enters into a savings
contract with the option to purchase shares
at the end of the contract period at a price
fixed previously.
22. Which of the following are common
criticisms of non-analytical job
evaluation? Select all that apply.
a. More likely to result in 'felt fair' outcomes.
b. Perceived to be a scientific method.
c. Transparent and speedy.
d. Straight forward to operate.
23. What is meant by RPO?
a. Recruitment Process Output.
b. Recruitment Process Outsourcing.
c. Recruitment Procedure Outsourcing.
d. Retirement Process Outsourcing.
24. What is meant by a skills deficit?
Select all that apply.
a. Where skills supplied do not match those
demanded.
b. Where supply of skills is not keeping pace
with the jobs created.
c. Where skills supplied match those
demanded.
d. Where supply of skills is keeping pace with
the jobs created.
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25. In a recent survey, what was the top
attraction for employees to jobs and
organisations?
a. Holiday entitlement.
b. Flexible working hours.
c. Workplace culture.
d. Location of work.
26. How long have anti-discrimination
laws relating to race and sex been in
place in the UK?
a. Over 20 years.
b. Over 40 years.
c. Over 30 years.
d. Over 10 years.
27. How long have anti-discrimination
laws relating to sexual orientation,
religion and age been in place in the UK?
a. Less than 10 years.
b. Less than 25 years.
c. Less than 15 years.
d. Less than 20 years.
28. Which of the following statements
about referrals are true? Select all that
apply.
a. Employees who are referred may have
unrealistic expectations about their job.
b. Candidates may have a better
understanding of the business.
c. Employees will generally only refer high
quality candidates as their reputation is at
stake.
d. Candidates have already been vetted and
are usually a better fit.
29. What is meant by a 'golden hello'?
a. Cash lump sum promised to people who
refer a friend.
b. Cash lump sums offered to new recruits.
c. Cash lump sums offered to people leaving
the organisation.
d. Cash lump sum promised to employees
who stay on in the organisation.
30. What was the traditional term used
for HRP and the one often associated with
personnel management?
a. Gap analysis
b. Human resource Planning
c. Employee planning
d. Manpower planning
31. Human resource planning (HRP) is not
simply about meeting the demand for
labour but also involves:
a. Redeploying staff
b. Directing line managers
c. Costs associated with employing any given
number of people
d. Making redundancies
32. What % of payroll costs did Bob
Cotton the chief executive of the British
hospitality Association estimate as a
result of the increase in the statutory
number of holidays from 20 days to 28
days?
a. 1.5%
b. 2.5%
c. 3.5%
d. 5%
33. There is, however, a degree of choice
in the way in which job cuts and
employment losses are implemented, and
making the right choice can minimize the
consequences of job losses, preserve the
reputation of the employer and maintain
good employee relations. Who would in
the main be responsible for making such
decisions?
a. Line managers
b. Senior management
c. HR specialists
d. Personnel
34. Why is it important to ensure that HR
plans are flexible?
a. To accommodate changes to senior
management teams
b. To adapt to changing skills and
qualifications
c. To accommodate the rapidly changing
environments in which most organisations
operate
d. To ensure a diverse labour force is
maintained at all times
35. The prevalent approach to planning
an organization's human resources in the
1970s and 1980s is seen, in retrospect, as
having been overly prescriptive and
inflexible (bin Idris and Eldridge, 1998).
Why?
a. Because it was overly quantitative in
direction
b. Because it was underdeveloped
c. Because it wasn't necessary as the pace of
change was not so rapid
d. Because it was not carried out by
professionals
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37. What is the estimated cost to the UK
businesses of days lost due to sickness?
a. £5.4 bn
b. £7.4 bn
c. £10.4bn
d. £13.4bn
38. The Bradford absence index is useful
because it:
a. Penalises those employees who are absence
for long periods of time
b. Predicts those taking 'sickies'
c. Calculated the actual costs of any given
level or individual pattern of absence
d. Gives weightings to the frequency of
absence
39. 2004 absence surveys - average
recorded days absence per employee per
year in public and private sectors
demonstrates that:
a. Public sector employees take more absence
than those in the private sector
b. Public and private sector employees take
about the same number of days for absence
c. That there is no discernable pattern
d. Public sector employees take less absence
than those in the private sector
40. 'Vitality' is a method of measuring:
a. The balance of internal promotions versus
external recruitment or loss of employees
b. Training and development costs
c. Retention of skilled staff
d. Levels of apprenticeships
41. Strategic stretch involves:
a. The fit between the organisation and its
environment.
b. Creating new opportunities by stretching
and exploiting capabilities in new ways.
c. The skills of the senior management.
d. Utilising all the resources of an organisation
to their full capacity.
42. What are core competences?
a. Resources which critically underpin
competitive advantage and that others cannot
obtain.
b. Activities and processes needed to meet
customers' minimum requirements and
therefore to continue to exist.
c. Key skills required for success in a particular
business.
d. Activities that underpin competitive
advantage and are difficult for competitors to
imitate or obtain.
43. The value chain attempts to identify
those activities which add value to:
a. The organisation's stakeholders.
b. The senior strategic managers in the
organisation.
c. The organisation's shareholders.
d. The customer or final user.
44. The value chain is composed of
primary & support activities. Which
answer below provides the correct
components for primary activities?
a. Service, human resource management,
marketing & sales, operations and outbound
logistics.
b. Marketing & Sales, Operations, Outbound
Logistics and Service.
c. Procurement, Firm Infrastructure, Human
Resource Management, Technology
Development and Marketing & Sales.
d. Inbound Logistics, Operations, Outbound
Logistics, Marketing & Sales and Service.
45. What is the purpose of an activity
map?
a. A system to facilitate better time-planning.
b. It is used in business process reengineering
to show how the different activities of an
organisation are linked together.
c. It is used to identify and understand
strategic capability by mapping how the
different activities of an organisation are linked
together.
d. A list of activities undertaken by an
organisation.
46. Competitive advantage through
linkages between the organisation and its
value network can be achieved by:
a. Vertical integration.
b. Adopting common quality standards
internally and externally (with suppliers).
c. Examining supplier specifications, common
merchandising, applying quality management
principles or by collaborating with other
organisations in the form of strategic alliances
or joint ventures.
d. Outsourcing customer service to India.
47. Cost efficiency is determined by which
of the following drivers?
a. Supply Costs, Experience, Product/Process
Design and Economies of Scale.
b. Supply Costs & Economies of Scale.
c. Product/Process Design and Economies of
Scale.
d. Experience.
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48. Robustness of strategic capabilities is
more likely when:
a. Linkages in the value network are exploited.
b. Core competences are complex, ambiguous
and dependent on culture/history.
c. Competences lie with specific individuals.
d. Core competences lie in separate parts of
the organisation's value chain.
49. Which types of organisational
knowledge are a source of competitive
advantage?
a. Explicit knowledge which is classified and
formalised in a planned and systematic way.
b. Personal knowledge which is hard to
communicate and formalise.
c. Customer databases, market research
reports, management reports.
d. Collective and shared experience
accumulated through systems, routines and
activities of sharing across the organisation.
50. In the resource-based view of
strategy, what type of strategic
capabilities are the source of sustainable
competitive advantage?
a. Unique resources and core competences.
b. Dynamic capabilities.
c. Operational excellence.
d. Strategic capabilities which are valuable to
buyers, rare, robust and non-substitutable.
51. What are the three criteria for the
robustness of strategic capability?
a. Core competences, unique resources and
dynamic capabilities.
b. Complexity, causal ambiguity and value to
customers.
c. Complexity, causal ambiguity and rarity.
d. Complexity, causal ambiguity and
culture/history.
52. Industry/sector benchmarking
compares:
a. Organisational performance between
firms/public sector organisations in different
industries or sectors.
b. Organisational performance between
firms/public sector organisations in the same
industry or sector.
c. Organisational performance between
firms/public sector organisations in different
countries.
d. Organisational performance between
different divisions of the firm.
53. Best in Class Benchmarking seeks to
assess organisational performance
against:
a. The nearest geographical competitor.
b. The competitor who is 'best in class'
wherever that may be.
c. The competitor who is the best in the
industry.
d. The nearest principal competitor.
54. The purpose of a SWOT analysis is to
analyse:
a. The business environment in which an
organisation operates.
b. The strategic capability of an organisation.
c. The business environment and the strategic
capability of an organisation relative to its
competitors.
d. External and organisational environments.
55. SWOT should be:
a. A general list of issues under each heading.
b. Focused on key issues and as specific as
possible.
c. Completed when an analysis of the external
environment has been conducted.
d. SWOT analysis is the best strategic
management framework for analysing the
competitive positioning of an organisation.
56. Imposing discipline in the form of
rules and regulations is an inalienable
right of the
a. management
b. employee
c. trade unions
d. None of the above
57. Which of the following is an objective
of employee discipline?
a. goal accomplishment
b. changing employee behaviour
c. promoting industrial relations
d. All of the above
58. Getting the willing cooperation of the
employees in voluntarily observing the
discipline code of an organization is the
essence of
a. negative discipline
b. positive discipline
c. progressive discipline
d. None of the above
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59. The threat of punishment as a key to
imposing discipline is the basis of
a. negative discipline
b. positive discipline
c. progressive discipline
d. None of the above
60. Adopting a step-by-step approach in
dealing with indiscipline problems is the
fundamental principle of
a. progressive discipline
b. negative discipline
c. positive discipline
d. None of the above
61. Which of the following is not a
disciplinary action against employees?
a. dismissal
b. increments
c. discharge
d. disciplinary demotion
62. Which of the following statements
indicates a good disciplinary system?
a. An employee must be reprimanded in
public.
b. An employee must not be reprimanded at
all.
c. An employee must be reprimanded in
private.
d. None of the above
63. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of the Hot Stove Rule of
Discipline?
a. immediacy
b. consistency
c. forewarning
d. secrecy
64. Job analysis is a process of gathering
information about the
a. job holder
b. job
c. management
d. organization
65. The final process of a job analysis is
the preparation of two statements,
namely,
a. job observation and job description
b. job specification and job observation
c. job description and job specification
d. None of the above
66. Which of the following terms is not
associated with job analysis?
a. task
b. duty
c. position
d. competitor
67. The process of bringing together
different tasks to build a job is called
a. job evaluation
b. job design
c. job classification
d. job description
68. The process of grouping of similar
types of works together is known as
a. job classification
b. job design
c. job evaluation
d. job description
69. The system of ranking jobs in a firm
on the basis of the relevant
characteristics, duties, and
responsibilities is known as
a. job evaluation
b. job design
c. job specification
d. job description
70. The written statement of the findings
of job analysis is called
a. job design
b. job classification
c. job description
d. job evaluation
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