IIBM Institute of
Business Management
Six Sigma Green Belt Professional
Q1. A 23 full factorial design with 2 replications provides
information about:
a. Main
factor effects
b. Two
way interactions
c. Three
way interaction
d. All
of the above
e. None
of the above
Q2. A 23 full factorial design attempts to prevent the
effect of lurking variables by
a. Replication
b. Randomization
c. Interaction
d. None
of the above
e. All
of the above
Q3. A 23 full factor design with
2 replications per cell requires ___________________ runs.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 8
e. 16
Q4. A 23 full
factorial design can be physically represented by which shape?
a. Square
b. Cube
c. Rectangle
d. Circle
e. None
of the above
Q5. The purpose of a full factorial design is to:
a. Provide
information on the effects of main factors
b. Provide
information on the effects of interactions
c. If
possible, remove the effects of lurking
d. All
of the above
e. None
of the above
Q6. Sigma is a statistical term that refers to the standard
deviation of the process about its
a. Variance
b. Mean
c. Median
d. Mode
e. None
of the above
Use the following design matrix display to answer the
question 7 -9.
|
Test
|
X1
|
X2
|
X3
|
CTQ
|
||
|
1
|
-
|
-
|
-
|
6
|
||
|
2
|
+
|
-
|
-
|
7
|
||
|
3
|
-
|
+
|
-
|
8
|
||
|
4
|
+
|
+
|
-
|
7
|
||
|
5
|
-
|
-
|
+
|
3
|
||
|
6
|
+
|
-
|
+
|
4
|
||
|
7
|
-
|
+
|
+
|
4
|
||
|
8
|
+
|
+
|
+
|
5
|
||
Q7. The above design matrix layout is called:
a. Random
order
b. Run
order
c. Standard
order
d. None
of the above
e. All
of the above
Q8. Compute the average effect of X3:
a. +12
b. -3
c. -4
d. +15
e. None
of the above
Q9. Compute the average effect of the interaction between X1
and X3.
2. -2
b. +1/2
c. +3
d. 1/3
e. none of the above
Q10. Purpose of a pilot test is
a. It
validates a revised best practices method.
b. It
highlights the risks (e.g., FMEA) involved in using the revised best practice
method.
c. It
promotes a smooth implementation of the revised best practice method.
d. It
facilitates buy-in by the stakeholders of revised best practice method.
e. All
of the above
Q11. Purpose of “risk management” is
a. To
maintain control
b. To
minimize the risk of failure of product, service or process by using risk
abatement plans
c. To
minimize control level
d. Both
(a) and (b)
e. None
of the above
Q12. Purpose of a 2k full factorial design is
a. To
understand the relationships between a set of Xs each with only one level
b. To
understand the relationships between a set of Xs each with only two levels
c. To
understand the relationships between a set of Xs each with only three levels
d. All
the above
e. None
of the above
Q13. Capability of the process in statistical terms is
defined as:
a. Measure
of voice of the Process
b. Measure
of voice of the Customer.
c. Measure
of the relative relationship between the “Voice of the Process” and the “voice
of the Customer.
d. All
of the above
e. None
of the above
Q14. Randomize runs in an experimental design to
a. Add
more effects of lurking variables
b. Remove
the effects of lurking variables
c. Deviate
the effects of lurking variables
d. None
of the above
e. All
of the above
Q15. Purpose of an operational definition is:
a. Promotes
effective communication between people
b. Put
communicable meaning into an adjective
c. Put
communicable meaning into proverb
d. Both
of the above
e. None
of the above
Q16. Examples of measurement data is
a. Cycle
time,
b. Weight,
c. Temperature
d. Both
of the above
e. None
of the above
Q17. The term “SIPOC analysis is described as:
a. A
simple tool for identifying the Suppliers and their Inputs into a Process
b. The
high level steps of a process
c. The
Outputs of the process and the Customers ( market) segments interested in the
outputs.
d. All
of the above
e. None
of the above
Q18. CTQ is defined as
a. Critical
to Quality characteristic
b. Critics
to Quality characteristic
c. Critical
characteristic of Quality
d. All
of the above
e. None
of the above
Q19. “X” in respect to a SIPOC analysis is defined as:
a. Inputs
b. Process
steps
c. Inputs
and process steps that cause variation in the outputs of a process
d. All
of the above
e. None
of the above
For question 20 – 25 consider the following problem
statement:
A customer wants to buy chocolate bars with a nominal weight
of 6.0 ounces and will accept a tolerance of 0.05 ounces either side of
nominal. As a supplier of chocolate bars you want to understand your process.
Your process produces chocolate rectangles that are cut from larger blocks of
chocolate and then packaged as six-ounce bars. Every 15 minutes, three
chocolate bar are weighed, prior to packaging. The chart below shows the
weights for each bar examined in a seven – hour day:
Q20. Overall process mean is:
a. 5.000
b. 6.000
c. 6.020
d. 6.024
e. None
of the above
Q21. The estimate of the process standard deviation is:
a. 0.019286
b. 1.693
c. 0.0113
d. 0.01234
e. None
of the above
Q22. LSL and USL for the above process are:
a. LSL
= 5.95 and USL = 6.05
b. LSL
= 6.95 and USL =5.05
c. LSL
= 7.95 and USL = 6.05
d. LSL
= 4.95 and USL = 4.05
e. None
of the above
Q23. Actual process yield using the empirical data is
a. 0.552
b. 0.652
c. 0.752
d. 0.952
e. 0.852
Q24. Actual DPMO from the empirical data is:
a. 45,000
b. 46,000
c. 48,000
d. 47,000
e. 50,000
Q25. Theoretical DPMO using the normal distribution is:
a. 11,100
b. 11,200
c. 11,300
d. 48,000
e. None
of the above
Q26. How might the standard deviation(S) of a normal
distribution be greater than the mean?
a. S
is given by a square root, and the square root is larger than the fraction.
b. In
a normal distribution, the variance must equal the mean.
c. If
some scores are negative, the mean could be very small despite a large S.
d. The
median would have to be less than the skew
e. None
of the above
Q27. In a class of 100, the mean on a certain exam was 50,
the standard deviation, 0. This means
a. Half
the class had scores less than 50
b. There
was a high correlation between ability and grade
c. Everyone
had a score of exactly 50
d. Half
the class had 0’s and half had 50’s
e. None
of the above
Q28. Suppose the mean on the final exam is 24 (of 40), with
a standard deviation of 1.5. If you get a 21, how well do you do (relative to
the rest of the class)?
a. Very
poorly – perhaps the lowest score
b. Not
well, but somewhere in the C’s
c. OK
– about average
d. Nicely
– better than the median
e. None
of the above
Q29. You can claim that there is a significant difference
between scores from two groups if
a. The
difference between the means is large compared to the standard error
b. The
means are large compared to the standard error
c. The
means are small compared to the standard error
d. The
difference between the standard deviations is large compared to the means
e. None
of the above
Q30. The correlation between a person’s hair length and
score on the midterm is very nearly zero. If your friend has a crew cut, your
best guess as to what he got on the midterm is
a. The
standard deviation of scores on the midterm
b. The
mean minus the standard deviation
c. The
mean score
d. None
of the above
Q31. There is a low (but real) negative correlation between
the amount of rain in a given summer and the amount the summer before. In the
absence of any information except that this summer is wetter than usual, you
are asked to guess next summer’s rain. Your best guess:
a. Somewhat
more than the average summer rainfall
b. The
average summer rainfall
c. Somewhat
less than the average summer rainfall
d. The
standard deviation of the rainfall
e. None
of the above
Q32. Which of the following statements best describes the
relationship between quality management and product strategy?
a. Product
strategy is set by top management; quality management is an independent
activity.
b. Quality
management is important to the low-cost product strategy, but not to the
response or differentiation strategies.
c. High
quality is important to all three strategies, but it is not a critical success
factor.
d. Managing
quality helps building successful product strategies.
e. Companies
with the highest measures of quality were no more productive than other firms.
Q33. “Quality is defined by the customer” is
a. An
unrealistic definition of quality
b. A
user-based definition of quality
c. A
manufacturing – based definition of quality
d. A
product – based definition of quality
e. The
definition proposed by the American Society for Quality
Q34. “Making it right the first “is
a. An
unrealistic definition of quality
b. A
user- based definition of quality
c. A
manufacturing- based definition of quality
d. A
product- based definition of quality
e. The
definition proposed by the American Society for Quality
Q35. Three broad categories of definitions of quality are
a. Product
quality, service quality, and organizational quality
b. User-
based, manufacturing –based, and product – based
c. Internal,
external, and prevention
d. Low
– cost, response, and differentiation
e. Pareto,
Shewhart, and Deming
Q36. According to the manufacturing –based definition of
quality,
a. Quality
is the degree of excellence at an acceptable price and the control of
variability at an acceptable cost
b. Quality
depends on how well the product fits patterns of consumer preferences
c. Even
though quality cannot be defined, you know what it is
d. Quality
is the degree to which a specific product conforms to standards
e. Quality
lies in the eyes of the beholder
Q37. The role of quality in limiting a firm’s product
liability is illustrated by
a. Ensuring
that contaminated products such as impure foods do not reach customs
b. Ensuring
that products meet standards such as those of the Consumer Product Safety Act
c. Designing
safe products to limit possible harm to consumers
d. Using
processes that make products as safe or as durable as their design
specifications call fro
e. All
of the above are valid.
Q38. Which of the following is not one of the major
categories of costs associated with quality?
a. Prevention
costs
b. Appraisal
costs
c. Internal
failures
d. External
failures
e. None
of the above; they are all major categories of costs associated with quality
Q39. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a
result of better quality expect
a. Customer
dissatisfaction costs
b. Inspection
costs
c. Scrap
costs
d. Warranty
and service costs
e. Maintenance
costs
Q40. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Self-promotion
is not a substitute for quality products.
b. Inferior
products harm a firm’s profitability and a nation’s balance of payments
c. Product
liability transfers from the manufacturer to the retailer once the retailer
accepts delivery of the product.
d. Quality
– be it good or bad – will show up in perceptions about a firm’s new products,
employment practices, and supplier relations.
e. Legislation
such as the consumer product safety act sets and enforces product standards by
banning products that do not reach those standards.
Q41. “Employees cannot produce goods that on average exceed
the quality of what the process is capable of producing” expresses a basic
element in the writings of
a. Vilfredo
Pareto
b. Armand
Feigenbaum
c. Joseph
M Juran
d. W.
Edwards Deming
e. Philip
B Crosby
Q42. “Quality Is Free,” meaning that the costs of poor
quality have been understated, is the work of
a. W.
Edwards Deming
b. Joseph
M Juran
c. Philip
B Crosby
d. Crosby,
Stills, and Nash
e. Armand
Feigenbaum
Q43. The philosophy of zero defects is
a. The
result of Deming’s research
b. Unrealistic
c. Prohibitively
costly
d. An
ultimate goal; in practice, 1 to 2% defects is acceptable
e. Consistent
with the commitment to continuous improvement
Q44. Regarding the quality of design, production, and
distribution of products, an ethical requirement for management is to
a. Determine
whether any f the organization’s stakeholders are violated by poor quality
products
b. Gain
ISO 14000 certification for the organization
c. Obtain
a product safety certificate from the Consumer Product Safety Commission
d. Have
the organization’s legal staff write disclaimers in the product instruction
booklets
e. Compare
the cost of products liability to the external failure cost
Q45. If 1 million passengers pass through the St. Louis
Airport with checked baggage each month, a successful Six Sigma program for
baggage handling would result in how many passengers with misplaced luggage?
a. 3.4
b. 6.0
c. 34
d. 2700
e. 6
times the monthly standard deviation of passengers
Q46. Which of the following is true about ISO 1400
certification?
a. It
is not a prerequisite for ISO 9000 certification.
b. It
deals with environmental management.
c. It
offers a good systematic approach to pollution prevention.
d. One
of its core elements is life-cycle assessment.
e. All
of the above are true.
Q47. To become ISO 9000 certified, organizations must
a. Document
quality procedures
b. Have
an onsite assessment
c. Have
an ongoing series of audits of their products or service
d. All
of the above
e. None
of the above
Q48. Which of the following statements regarding “Six Sigma”
is true?
a. The
term has two distinct meanings – one is statistical; the other is a
comprehensive quality system.
b. Six
Sigma means that about 94 percent of a firm’s output is free of defects.
c. The
Six Sigma program was developed by Toyota in the 1970’s.
d. The
Six Sigma program is for manufacturing firms, and is not applicable to
services.
e. Six
Sigma certification is granted by the International Standards Organization
(ISO)
Q49. Building high-morale organizations and building
communication network that incluse employees are both elements of
a. ISO
9000 certification
b. Six
Sigma certification
c. Employee
empowerment
d. Taguchi
methods
e. The
tools of TQM
Q50. The process of identifying other organizations that are
best at some facet of your operations and then modeling your organization after
them is known as
a. Continuous
improvement
b. Employee
empowerment
c. Benchmarking
d. Copycatting
e. Patent
infringement.
Q51. Six sigma quality performance means ___________________
defects per millions.
a. 0.4
b. 1.9
c. 3.4
d. 4.3
e. 3.5
Q52. Six sigma is associate with process capabilities of
___________________ which are considered world-class performance
a. Cp
= 1.5
b. Cp
> 1.5
c. Cp
<1.5
d. Cp
=1.0
e. Cp
=2.0
Q53. Who is known as the father of SQC?
a. W.
Edward Deming
b. Joseph
M Juran
c. Walter
Shewhart
d. Philip
Crosby
e. None of the above
Q54. ________________________ can be defined as the use of
problem solving techniques and quick deployment to implement improvements and
then use process behavior studies to maintain the gains.
a. Continual
improvement
b. Continuous
improvement
c. Discontinuous
improvement
d. Improvement
e. Disorder
Q55. Six Sigma was first started at
a. Titan
b. Ranbaxy
c. Motorola
Inc.
d. Toyota
e. Maruti
Q56. The SIPOC business model provides all the following
benefits, EXCEPT:
a. Providing
a framework applicable to processes of all sizes
b. Identifying
the few key business customers
c. Displaying
cross-function activities in simple terms
d. Helping
maintain the big business picture
e. None
of the above
Q57. Which of the new quality management tools is used to
organize facts and data about an unfamiliar subjects or problem?
a. The
affinity diagram
b. The
header technique
c. The
AND diagram
d. Matrix
diagram
e. None
of the above
Q58. In Six Sigma road map tell the correct order for steps:
I.
Recognition
II.
Use
problem solving methodology
III.
Use DMAIC model to deploy the improvement
IV.
Identification
a. I
, II, III, IV
b. I,
IV, II, III
c. III,
IV, I, II
d. IV,
III, I, II
e. I
, III, IV, II
Q59. The purpose of “rolled through put yield” in the six
sigma define step would include all of the following, expect:
a. Spotting
significant differences in yield
b. Providing
a baseline metric
c. Using
the calculation for customer analysis
d. Analyzing
a process flow for improvement ideas
e. None
of the above
Q60. Which three of the following four techniques could
easily be used to display the same data?
I.
Stem and leaf plots
II.
Boxplots
III.
Scatter diagrams
IV.
Histograms
a. I,II
and III only
b. I,
II, and IV only
c. I,
III, and IV only
d. II,
III and IV only
e. None
of the above
Q61. In the regression equation y = mx + b, y increases with
x in all cases:
a. If
b is positive
b. If
b is negative
c. If
m is positive
d. If
m is negative
e. None
of the above
Q62. If a sample size of 16 yields an average of 12 and
standard deviation of 3, estimate the 95% confidence interval for the population
(assume a normal distribution).
a. 10.40
< m < 13.60
b. 10.45
< m < 13.55
c. 10.53
< m < 13.47
d. 10.77
< m < 13.23
e. None
of the above
Q63. Rearrange the following steps in correct order under
TOC
I.
Subordinate
II.
Identify
III.
Repeat
IV.
Elevate
V.
Exploit
a. I,
II, III, IV, V
b. II,V,
I, IV, III
c. V,
IV, II, III, I
d. III,
IV, I, II, V
e. V,
II, III, I , IV
Q64. In a full factorial experimental design, factors A and
B are Both tested at 4 levels. How many experiments are conducted?
a. 8
b. 9
c. 12
d. 16
e. 5
Q65. The smallest run number possible to examine the main
effects of 22 factors at 2 levels is:
a. 23
b. 24
c. 44
d. 56
e. 20
Q66. The main difference between traditional kaizen and the
kaizen blitx approach is:
a. The
number of people involved
b. The
place of the change effort
c. The
amount of the floor space saved
d. The
commitment level of management
e. None
of the above
Q67. A ________________ is a document stating the purposes
of the project and servers as an informal contact that helps the team stay on
track with the goals of the organization
a. Charter
b. Calendar
c. Starter
d. Statement
e. Projector
Q68.Accourding to _________________ developmental sequence
in small groups teams typically go through the stages of forming, storming,
norming and performing
a. B
W Tuckmans’s
b. Woodford
c. Breyfogle
d. Joseph
M Juran
e. None
of the above
Q69. Affinity diagram are used to produce _______________
possible answers to an open ended question
a. Only
2
b. Only
3
c. More
than 5
d. Many
e. No
Q70. Horizontal communication is used in
a. Flatter
organization
b. Fleeter
organization
c. Floater
organization
d. All
of the above
e. None
of the above
Q71. Which of the following relation is correct for RPN
calculation
a. RPN
= S x O +D
b. RPN
= S x O –D
c. PRN
= S x O x D
d. RPN
= S x O / D
e. None
of the above
Q72. Z charts are also called
a. Short
– run charts
b. Long
– run charts
c. Group
charts
d. Paynter
charts
e. None
of the above
Q73. Contigency tables are ____________ dimensional
classification tables.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. None
of the above
74. A mechanical assembly process has a historical defective
rate of 10%. What is the probability that a lot of 50 units will contain
exactly five defectives?
a. 0.16%
b. 0.17%
c. 0.18%
d. 1.0%
e. None of the above
Q75. A pizza restaurant’s order processing time is
normally distributed. A random sample has mean 30 minutes and standard
deviation five minutes. Estimate the % of the orders that are between 35 and 20
minutes.
a. 0.89
b. 0.85
c. 0.80
d. 0.82
e. 1.0
Q76. In Gage R & R , R & R stands for
a. Repeat
and Repeat
b. Repeatability
and Repeatability
c. Reproducibility
and Reproducibility
d. Repeatability
and Reproducibility
e. None
of the above
Q85. The formula for control limits for the c chart
Q86. Which of the following is not related with scope
wide open
a. Global
warming
b. Low
attendance at ASQ section program meeting
c. Unemployment
d. Organization
culture
e. None
of the above
Q87.which of the following is NOT a widely recognized
topic area for DFX?
a. Design
for profit
b. Design
for assembly
c. Design
for reliability
d. Design
for appearance
e. None
of the above
Q88. Defect correction is an example of
a. Value
added services
b. Non-value
added services
c. Lean
thinking
d. Standard
work
e. None
of the above
Q89. Activities that perform functions that do not change
the form or function of the product or service and the customer is not willing
to pay for these activities are termed as __________.
a. Value
services
b. Value
added services
c. Services
d. None
of the above
Q90. Which of the following is not included in 5W’s
concept
a. Which
b. What
c. Why
d. Where
e. where
Q91. If the probability of a car starting on a rainy day
is 0.4, the complement of not would be
a. 0.4
b. 0.5
c. 0.6
d. 0.8
e. 1.0
Q92. A local ASQ section with 10 volunteers wants to form
a task fore of three volunteers to send for proctor training to potentially
become exam proctors. The different three- person combinations could be formed
are:
a. 50
b. 80
c. 100
d. 120
e. 150
a.
0.01
b.
0.02
c.
0.03
d.
0.04
e.
0.05
Q94. Twelve randomly selected chemical packs were
measured before mixing with the raw material. The weights in grams of chemicals
supplied by a vendor to an organization are as follows:
7.3, 7.9, 7.1, 7.3, 7.4, 7.3, 7.0, 7.3, 7.7, 7.3, 7.1,
7.8
The weight on the pack says 7.5 grams. The approximate
probability that the weight of the rest of the packs in storage is greater than
7.5 is :
a. 7.4
b. 7.2
c. 7.5
d. 7.6
e. 7.8
Q96. Value at cooking level is
a. 20.5
b. 21.3
c. 22.3
d. 23.5
e. 25.0
O97. Value at Meat level is:
a. 2.75
b. 5.75
c. 1.0
d. -5.57
e. -6.5
Q98. Value at marinade level is
a. 0.2
b. 1.2
c. 1.5
d. 2.5
e. -2.5
Q99. A null hypothesis requires several assumptions, a
basic one of which is:
a. That
the variables are significant
b. The
variables are independent
c. That
the sample size is adequate
d. That
the confidence interval is + 2
standard deviations
e. None
of the abve
Q100. ____________________ is a method of generating a
large number of creative ideas in a short period of time.
a. Six
Sigma
b. Brainstorming
c. Benchmarking
d. Performing
e. None
of the above
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